NDA Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In which city did Saudi Arabia and Pakistan sign the Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Riyadh
Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman and PM Shehbaz Sharif signed the agreement in Riyadh during Sharif's state visit.
What is the core clause of the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both
The joint statement said the agreement states that any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan defence pact: 1. The MEA said the Government was aware that the development, which formalises a long-standing arrangement, had been under consideration. 2. The MEA said India would study its implications for national security as well as for regional and global stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the Government was aware the pact had been under consideration and that India would study its implications for national security and for regional and global stability.
Which ministry holds regulatory and stewardship responsibility for geothermal energy under the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Under the policy, regulatory and stewardship responsibilities for geothermal energy rest with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
How many geothermal projects, including pilot and resource assessment projects, had MNRE sanctioned as of the notification of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Five
MNRE has sanctioned five projects in the sector, including pilot initiatives and resource assessment projects.
Consider the following statements about the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025): 1. It promotes R&D in retrofitting abandoned oil wells and Enhanced/Advanced Geothermal Systems. 2. It covers direct uses such as district heating and Ground Source Heat Pumps besides power generation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the policy promotes R&D in hybrid geothermal-solar plants, retrofitting abandoned oil wells and EGS/AGS, and covers direct uses like district heating and GSHPs alongside electricity generation.
Under which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did the ECI revise guidelines for EVM ballot papers in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rule 49B
The ECI revised the existing guidelines under Rule 49B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, for the design and printing of EVM ballot papers.
Under the revised ECI guidelines of September 2025, what colour of paper is to be used for EVM ballot papers in Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Pink
For Assembly elections, pink-coloured paper of specified RGB values is to be used; ballot papers are printed on 70 GSM paper.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's revised EVM ballot paper guidelines of September 2025: 1. Candidates' photographs will be printed in colour, with the face occupying three-fourths of the photo space. 2. Serial numbers of candidates and NOTA will be printed in Devanagari numerals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Photographs will be in colour with the face covering three-fourths of the space, but serial numbers will be printed in the international form of Indian numerals, not Devanagari numerals.
In which state was the proof of concept implemented before the Department of Posts–BSNL MoU for SIM sales through post offices was signed in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Assam
The proof of concept was implemented in Assam, where it showed significant success, before the nationwide MoU.
What was the theme of World Ozone Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — From science to global action
The theme for World Ozone Day 2025 was 'From science to global action', emphasising how scientific discovery can guide policy and international cooperation.
According to UNDP's Resident Representative at the 31st World Ozone Day event, what reduction target in HCFC production and consumption has India achieved?
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Correct answer: D — 67.5%
UNDP Resident Representative Angela Lusigi said India achieved the 67.5% reduction target in HCFC production and consumption and completely phased out HCFC-141b.
World Ozone Day on 16 September commemorates the signing of which international agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Montreal Protocol
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
Consider the following statements about the ozone treaties: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol were the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification. 2. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed in 2016, deals with the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. On 16 September 2009 the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification, and the Kigali Amendment agreed on 15 October 2016 provides for the phase-down of HFCs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985. 2. Under the Kigali Amendment, India's HFC phase-down is to be implemented from 2028 onwards. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Vienna Convention was adopted and signed on 22 March 1985, and MoEFCC noted that the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment is to be implemented from 2028 onwards.
Over what period does the nationwide Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of the Department of Financial Services run?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July – 30 September 2025
DFS launched the three-month campaign from 1 July 2025 to 30 September 2025.
How many new PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts were opened in the first 2.5 months of the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign, as reported in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than 61 lakh
The campaign resulted in over 61 lakh new PMJDY accounts; 2.6 crore was the number of new enrolments under the three Jan Suraksha schemes.
Which of the following schemes are NOT among the flagship schemes targeted by the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of 2025? 1. Atal Pension Yojana 2. PM Suraksha Bima Yojana 3. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: A — 3 only
Only PM-KISAN is not targeted. The campaign covers PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY.
What is the name of the strategic partnership between India and Denmark that the two Prime Ministers reaffirmed on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Green Strategic Partnership
Both leaders reaffirmed their commitment to further strengthen the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements based on the Modi–Frederiksen call of 16 September 2025: 1. Denmark was holding the Presidency of the Council of the European Union at the time. 2. Denmark was a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council at the time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PM Modi conveyed best wishes for Denmark's ongoing Presidency of the Council of the EU and its non-permanent membership of the UNSC.
To which UNESCO list is India seeking a multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva, as discussed by the Ministry of Culture in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
The nomination is for inscription on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Under which UNESCO convention would Chhath Mahaparva be inscribed on the intangible heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — 2003 Convention
The multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva is for the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Which of the following countries were represented by senior diplomats at the Ministry of Culture's IGNCA meeting of 16 September 2025 on the Chhath Mahaparva nomination?
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Correct answer: D — UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands
Senior diplomatic representatives of the UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands attended the IGNCA meeting; envoys to Mauritius and Fiji joined a separate virtual interaction later.
What is the number of the MANAS anti-drug helpline that Amit Shah urged greater use of at the ANTF heads conference in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1933
Amit Shah said greater use should be made of the MANAS helpline number 1933.
How much quantity of drugs was destroyed under the NCB drug disposal campaign launched by Amit Shah on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1.37 lakh kg
Under the campaign, 1.37 lakh kilograms of drugs worth ₹4,800 crore were destroyed at 11 locations.
Consider the following statements about the three-pronged anti-drug strategy outlined by Amit Shah at the second ANTF heads conference: 1. It calls for a humane approach towards the drug supply chain. 2. It calls for a strategic approach towards demand reduction. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. Shah called for a ruthless approach to the drug supply chain, a strategic approach to demand reduction and a humane approach to harm reduction.
Who led the USTR team that held trade talks in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Brendan Lynch
The team from the Office of the USTR was led by Brendan Lynch, Chief Negotiator for the India-US Bilateral Trade Agreement negotiations.
What did India and the US decide at the end of the trade talks held in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — To intensify efforts for early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement
The Commerce Ministry said it was decided to intensify efforts to achieve early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement.
What did the ARIES study of more than 6,000 open clusters, reported in September 2025, find about interstellar dust in the Milky Way?
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Correct answer: D — It forms a thin, wavy layer rather than being evenly distributed
The study led by Dr. Y. C. Joshi found that the dust is not evenly distributed and instead forms a thin, wavy layer.
Where was the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025, won by Vaishali Rameshbabu, held?
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Correct answer: D — Samarkand, Uzbekistan
The FIDE Grand Swiss and Women's Grand Swiss 2025 were held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, ending on 15 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about Vaishali Rameshbabu's win at the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025: 1. She became the first player to win the Grand Swiss twice in a row. 2. She finished in clear first place, a full point ahead of the rest of the field. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: FIDE said a second consecutive Grand Swiss win had never been achieved before in either section. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaishali and Kateryna Lagno both scored 8/11, and Vaishali took first place on tiebreak.
Apart from Vaishali Rameshbabu, which player qualified for the 2026 Women's Candidates Tournament from the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kateryna Lagno
Russia's Kateryna Lagno also scored 8/11 and, with Vaishali, took the two Candidates spots from the Women's Grand Swiss; Bibisara Assaubayeva finished third.
Which bench of the Supreme Court passed the interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 on 15 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih
The interim order of 15 September 2025 was passed by a bench of Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih.
Under the Supreme Court's interim directions on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of non-Muslim members allowed in the Central Waqf Council and in a State Waqf Board, respectively?
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Correct answer: A — 4 and 3
The Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members and a State Waqf Board not more than 3, recording the Solicitor General's statement to the same effect.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's interim order of 15 September 2025 on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. The Court stayed the operation of the entire Act until the petitions are finally decided. 2. The condition that a person must be practising Islam for at least five years to create a waqf was stayed until State Governments frame rules for a mechanism to determine it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court found no case to stay the entire statute. Statement 2 is correct: the five-year condition was stayed until State Governments frame rules, since without a mechanism it could lead to arbitrary exercise of power.
While staying the Collector's powers to decide disputes over waqf property under the amended Act, which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court say would be violated if the executive determined citizens' rights?
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Correct answer: D — Separation of powers
The Court said permitting the Collector to adjudicate the rights of citizens would violate the separation of powers, and stayed those provisions until the Waqf Tribunal decides.
India's second contract with the International Seabed Authority for polymetallic sulphides exploration, signed on 15 September 2025, covers an area in which feature of the Indian Ocean?
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Correct answer: C — Carlsberg Ridge
The 15-year contract gives India exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides in an allotted 10,000 sq km area of the Carlsberg Ridge.
Consider the following statements about India's PMS exploration contract with the ISA signed in September 2025: 1. India became the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphides exploration. 2. The contract is valid for 30 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is the first country with two ISA PMS contracts (the earlier, from 2016, covers the Central and Southwest Indian Ridges). Statement 2 is incorrect: the contract is for 15 years.
The International Seabed Authority, with which India signed its second PMS exploration contract, is based in which country?
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Correct answer: B — Jamaica
The International Seabed Authority, the UN body that regulates mineral exploration in international seabed areas, is based in Jamaica.
The 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' and the Frontier Tech Repository were launched on 15 September 2025 under which NITI Aayog platform?
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Correct answer: D — Frontier Tech Hub
NITI Aayog launched both initiatives under its Frontier Tech Hub, which the Finance Minister likened to a honeycomb bringing together government, industry and innovators.
Which two levers does NITI Aayog's 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' highlight?
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Correct answer: A — Accelerating AI adoption across industries, and transforming R&D with generative AI
The roadmap highlights two major levers: accelerating adoption of AI across industries to enhance productivity and efficiency, and transforming R&D with generative AI.
In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win gold at the Speed Skating World Championships 2025 to become India's first world champion in skating?
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Correct answer: B — Senior men's 1000m sprint
Velkumar won gold in the senior men's 1000m sprint in 1:24.924, a day after winning bronze in the 500m sprint.
Where were the Speed Skating World Championships 2025, at which Anandkumar Velkumar won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Beidaihe, China
The championships were held in Beidaihe, China, where Velkumar won the senior men's 1000m sprint on 15 September 2025.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 0.52%
WPI inflation was 0.52% (provisional) in August 2025, turning positive after -0.19% in June and -0.58% in July.
What is the base year of the Wholesale Price Index series used for the August 2025 release?
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Correct answer: C — 2011-12
The WPI release for August 2025 uses the series with base year 2011-12.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services combined) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 69.16 billion
Total exports in August 2025 were estimated at US$ 69.16 billion, up 9.34% from US$ 63.25 billion in August 2024; US$ 35.10 billion was merchandise exports alone.
Which merchandise export category recorded the highest growth (25.93%) among the major drivers listed for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports rose 25.93%, from US$ 2.32 billion to US$ 2.93 billion; gems and jewellery grew 15.57%, drugs and pharmaceuticals 6.94% and petroleum products 6.54%.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin, what was India's overall unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5.1%
The overall unemployment rate declined for the second consecutive month, from 5.6% in June and 5.2% in July to 5.1% in August 2025.
The monthly estimates of the Periodic Labour Force Survey are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: B — Current Weekly Status
The PLFS monthly bulletins present LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate estimates at the all-India level following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
INS Nistar sailed to Singapore in September 2025 to take part in which multinational exercise, a biennial submarine rescue exercise?
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Correct answer: D — Exercise Pacific Reach
INS Nistar made its maiden port call at Changi, Singapore to participate in Exercise Pacific Reach 2025 (XPR 25), a biennial submarine rescue exercise that began on 15 September 2025.
INS Kadmatt, which arrived in Suva, Fiji on 15 September 2025, is what type of warship?
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Correct answer: A — Anti-submarine warfare corvette
INS Kadmatt is an indigenously designed and built anti-submarine warfare corvette; it arrived in Suva for a goodwill visit during its three-month deployment.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025, approved on 14 September 2025, replaces a manual that was last promulgated in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2009
The DPM, which regulates revenue procurement by the Defence Services, was last promulgated in 2009; the revised DPM 2025 was approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily governs which type of procurement by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: D — Revenue procurement of goods and services
The DPM lays down principles for all revenue procurements in the Ministry, valued at around ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
Consider the following statements about liquidated damages (LD) under the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. No LD will be levied during the development phase of a contract. 2. The maximum LD has been lowered to 5%, rising to 10% only in cases of inordinate delay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPM 2025 introduces no LD during the development phase and a minimal 0.1% LD after the prototype is developed; maximum LD is lowered to 5%, and only for inordinate delays can it reach 10%.
Under DPM 2025, for how long can the Ministry of Defence give assured orders (in terms of quantity) to suppliers who develop items?
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Correct answer: A — Up to five years, extendable by up to five more years in special circumstances
DPM 2025 provides an assured guarantee of orders in terms of quantity for up to five years and, in special circumstances, up to another five years.
Where were the World Boxing Championships 2025, at which Minakshi Hooda and Jaismine Lamboria won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Liverpool, United Kingdom
The World Boxing Championships 2025 were held in Liverpool, where Minakshi won the 48kg and Jaismine the 57kg title.
In which weight category did Jaismine Lamboria win gold at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57kg
Jaismine Lamboria won the women's 57kg title, beating Poland's Julia Szeremeta 4-1; Minakshi Hooda won the 48kg title.
Whom did Minakshi Hooda defeat in the women's 48kg final at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Nazym Kyzaibay of Kazakhstan
Minakshi beat Kazakhstan's Paris Olympics bronze medallist Nazym Kyzaibay 4-1 in the 48kg final; she had beaten Mongolia's Altantsetseg Lutsaikhan in the semi-final.
Consider the following statements about India's campaign at the World Boxing Championships 2025: 1. India won four medals, all of them in the women's section. 2. Nupur Sheoran won gold in the women's 80+kg category. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India won two golds (Minakshi, Jaismine), a silver and a bronze, all by women, while the men drew a blank. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nupur Sheoran won silver in the 80+kg after losing the final 3-2 to Poland's Agata Kaczmarska.
Which team defeated India in the final of the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — China
Hosts China beat India 4-1 in the final in Hangzhou to win their third Women's Asia Cup title.
Who scored India's only goal in the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 final?
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Correct answer: D — Navneet Kaur
Navneet Kaur converted a penalty corner in the first minute to give India the lead before China scored four times.
Consider the following statements about the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025: 1. India's loss in the final meant they missed direct qualification for the 2026 FIH Women's World Cup. 2. The final was played in India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: continental champions qualify directly, so China qualified and India must go through the qualifiers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final was played at the Gongshu Canal Sports Park in Hangzhou, China.
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup, for which China qualified by winning the Asia Cup 2025, will be co-hosted by which countries?
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Correct answer: C — Belgium and the Netherlands
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup is to be co-hosted by Belgium and the Netherlands.
Who administered the oath of office to C.P. Radhakrishnan as Vice President of India on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Droupadi Murmu
President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office of Vice President to C.P. Radhakrishnan at Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Which post did C.P. Radhakrishnan hold immediately before becoming Vice President of India?
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Correct answer: A — Governor of Maharashtra
Radhakrishnan was formerly the Governor of Maharashtra; he had earlier been Governor of Jharkhand with additional charge of Telangana and Puducherry.
From which Lok Sabha constituency was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected in 1998 and 1999?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
Radhakrishnan was elected to the Lok Sabha for the first time from Coimbatore in 1998 and re-elected in 1999.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. C.P. Radhakrishnan is the 17th person to hold the office of Vice President of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Radhakrishnan took oath as the 15th Vice President and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; 'seventeenth' refers to the number of the Vice-Presidential election held in 2025, not to the office-holder.
Who was sworn in as Prime Minister of Nepal's interim government on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
Former Chief Justice Sushila Karki was sworn in as interim Prime Minister, becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister.
For which date were Nepal's new parliamentary elections scheduled after President Paudel dissolved Parliament on Sushila Karki's recommendation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 5 March 2026
The President's office said Parliament was dissolved on Karki's recommendation and new elections were scheduled for 5 March 2026.
Consider the following statements about Sushila Karki: 1. Before becoming Nepal's first woman Prime Minister, she had been Nepal's first woman Chief Justice. 2. India's MEA welcomed the formation of the interim government led by her, hoping it would foster peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Karki was appointed Nepal's first woman Chief Justice in 2016, and the MEA welcomed the interim government she leads, saying it was hopeful this would help foster peace and stability.
Through which platform did the Agriculture Ministry send AI-based monsoon forecasts by SMS to about 3.8 crore farmers in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — m-Kisan
The ministry sent AI-based monsoon forecasts via SMS through m-Kisan to nearly 3.8 crore farmers across 13 states.
The AI-based monsoon forecasts sent to farmers in 2025 blended which two open-access models?
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Correct answer: C — Google's NeuralGCM and ECMWF's AIFS
The forecasts used by the ministry were a blend of Google's NeuralGCM and the ECMWF's Artificial Intelligence Forecasting System (AIFS), which outperformed other forecasts at predicting local monsoon onset.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.07%
All India CPI inflation was 2.07% (provisional) in August 2025, 46 basis points higher than in July; 0.52% was the WPI figure for August.
What was the base year of the CPI series used for the August 2025 inflation release?
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Correct answer: B — 2012
The release gives Consumer Price Index numbers on base 2012=100 for rural, urban and combined.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for August 2025: 1. Food inflation based on CFPI was negative for the third consecutive month. 2. Rural headline inflation was higher than urban headline inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI food inflation was -0.69%, negative for the third month in a row. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.69% while urban inflation was 2.47%.
Which EU Commissioner addressed the 65th Annual Session of ACMA on 12 September 2025 and said India and the EU aim to finalise their FTA by year-end?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security, said India and the EU were negotiating a ground-breaking FTA with unprecedented momentum and working to finalise it by year-end.
At the annual session of which industry body did Piyush Goyal speak about the India–EU FTA on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA)
Goyal addressed the 65th Annual Session of the Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA), saying the FTA would open new opportunities for the auto component sector.
In which Indian city did PM Modi hold talks with Mauritius PM Navinchandra Ramgoolam on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PM Modi welcomed PM Ramgoolam to his parliamentary constituency, Kashi (Varanasi), where the talks and joint press statement took place.
Which of the following is a grant project in India's special economic package for Mauritius announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — New Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam National Hospital
The new SSR National Hospital is among the grant projects (with an AYUSH Centre of Excellence, a veterinary school and helicopters); Motorway M4, the ATC tower and Ring Road Phase II are grant-cum-LoC projects.
India agreed in principle to assist Mauritius in developing and surveilling which area, as part of the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: A — Chagos Marine Protected Area
On the strategic side, the two sides agreed in principle on redevelopment of a port in Mauritius and assistance in development and surveillance of the Chagos Marine Protected Area.
How much budgetary assistance did India agree in principle to extend to Mauritius in the current financial year (2025-26)?
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Correct answer: D — USD 25 million
India agreed in principle to extend budgetary assistance of USD 25 million in the current financial year.
Consider the following outcomes of the Mauritius PM's state visit to India in September 2025: 1. An agreement was signed to establish a telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station for satellites and launch vehicles. 2. NTPC will work towards a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the list of outcomes includes the space telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station agreement and an announcement to take forward a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls, with an NTPC team to finalise an agreement with CEB.