MPPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was coal production from captive and commercial mines in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 210.46 MT
The Coal Ministry said production reached 210.46 MT; 204.61 MT was dispatch and 190.95 MT the previous year's production.
How many captive and commercial coal blocks were operationalised through Mine Opening Permission in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 12
12 blocks were operationalised, adding over 86 MT of capacity; 7 blocks began production within the year.
Till which date has the full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical products, announced on 2 April 2026, been granted?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2026
The Finance Ministry said the exemption is till 30 June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on critical petrochemicals announced on 2 April 2026: 1. It is a permanent reduction in customs duty. 2. Methanol (methyl alcohol) is among the products covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The ministry called it temporary and targeted relief valid till 30 June 2026, and methanol is listed in the annexure.
For what period does the cost escalation compensation mechanism for National Highway projects, announced on 2 April 2026, apply?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April to 30 June 2026
MoRTH said the measures apply for three months, from 1 April till 30 June 2026, or until further review.
Under the revised price adjustment for EPC highway contracts, the Wholesale Price Index will be taken for which period?
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Correct answer: C — One month before the Interim Payment Certificate month
MoRTH said WPI will now be taken for one month prior to the relevant IPC month, in place of three months prior.
On which date was the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) signed?
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Correct answer: C — 2 April 2022
The Commerce Ministry said the ECTA was signed on 2 April 2022 and completed four years on 2 April 2026.
From which date are all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty market access into Australia under the ECTA?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2026
The ministry said that from 1 January 2026 all Indian exports are eligible for zero-duty access into Australia.
Under the India–Australia ECTA, India granted preferential market access on what share of its tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 70.3%
India granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, covering 90.6% of trade value; Australia granted it on 100% of its lines, 98.3% of which became duty-free immediately.
KOICA, with which India's Ports Ministry signed a shipbuilding skill development plan on 2 April 2026, is an agency of which country?
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Correct answer: B — Republic of Korea
KOICA is the Korea International Cooperation Agency; the release refers to leveraging the Republic of Korea's expertise.
The MoPSW–KOICA shipbuilding skill development project is aligned with which vision document?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047
The ministry said the project is aligned with the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
Where was the fifth India–Mozambique Joint Defence Working Group meeting held on 1–2 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Maputo
The Ministry of Defence said the meeting was held in Maputo, Mozambique.
Which edition of the India–Mozambique Joint Defence Working Group meeting was held in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Fifth
The release describes it as the fifth JDWG meeting.
Who was the first to complete self-enumeration when Census 2027 began on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
The Home Ministry said the exercise began with the enumeration of President Droupadi Murmu, upholding the tradition of starting with the First Citizen.
Between which dates will the Houselisting and Housing Census phase of Census 2027 be conducted across the country?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April – 30 September 2026
The HLO phase runs nationally from 1 April to 30 September 2026; 16 April–15 May is the houselisting window in the first set of states/UTs.
How many questions have been notified for Phase I (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 33
A total of 33 questions for Phase I were notified in January 2026; 16 is the number of regional languages for self-enumeration.
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?
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Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025
The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.
Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes
The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.
On which date was the Reserve Bank of India established?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 1935
The RBI says it was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India: 1. Its Central Office was initially established in Kolkata and moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937. 2. It has been fully owned by the Government of India since its nationalisation in 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the RBI's 'About Us' page.
The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Under the concessional customs duty notified on 1 April 2026, SEZ units can clear goods to the Domestic Tariff Area up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of the highest annual FOB export value in the preceding three years
The cap is 30% of the highest annual free-on-board export value achieved in any of the three immediately preceding financial years.
What minimum value addition within the SEZ is required to avail the concessional duty on SEZ-to-DTA clearances?
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Correct answer: B — 20%
The notification prescribes a minimum 20% value addition within the SEZ.
Who assumed the appointment of Vice Chief of the Army Staff on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth
The Ministry of Defence said Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth assumed the appointment of VCOAS on 1 April 2026.
Who took over as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command, from Lt Gen RC Tiwari in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Lt Gen VMB Krishnan
Lt Gen VMB Krishnan, previously Quarter Master General, took over Eastern Command from Lt Gen RC Tiwari.
Who assumed command of the Army's Southern Command on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lt Gen Sandeep Jain
Lt Gen Sandeep Jain succeeded Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth as GOC-in-C, Southern Command.
What capital outlay for the Defence Services did the Ministry of Defence fully utilise in FY 2025-26 (Revised Estimates)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.86 lakh crore
The ministry fully utilised ₹1.86 lakh crore at the RE stage; ₹1.80 lakh crore was the original appropriation.
What was the overall utilisation of the defence budget, including MoD (civil) and pensions, in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 99.62%
The ministry said overall utilisation stood at 99.62% against the final allocation.
Who assumed charge as Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Chanchal Kumar
The ministry said Chanchal Kumar assumed charge on 1 April 2026, succeeding Sanjay Jaju.
Chanchal Kumar, the new Secretary of Information and Broadcasting, belongs to which IAS batch and cadre?
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Correct answer: C — 1992 batch, Bihar cadre
He is a 1992-batch IAS officer of the Bihar cadre.
Up to which date has the RoSCTL scheme for apparel and made-ups exports been extended?
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Correct answer: D — 30 September 2026
The Ministry of Textiles extended RoSCTL up to 30 September 2026 or until approval for the 16th Finance Commission cycle, whichever is earlier.
Since when has the Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) scheme been operational?
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Correct answer: A — 7 March 2019
The ministry said RoSCTL has been operational since 7 March 2019.
How many Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) did the CBDT sign in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 219
The CBDT entered into a record 219 APAs in FY 2025-26 (174 in the previous year and 125 the year before).
With which of the following countries did India sign its first-ever bilateral APA in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Sweden
FY 2025-26 saw India's first-ever bilateral APAs with France, Ireland, Indonesia and Sweden.
Consider the following statements about India's APA programme (as of March 2026): 1. The total number of APAs since inception is 1,034. 2. Bilateral APAs outnumber unilateral APAs in the total. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The total is 1,034 APAs, comprising 750 unilateral and 284 bilateral APAs, so unilateral APAs are more.
Which team became the 48th and final team to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026, on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Iraq
Iraq beat Bolivia 2-1 at Monterrey to become the 48th and final team to qualify.
The FIFA World Cup 2026, the first with 48 teams, is hosted jointly by:
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Correct answer: A — USA, Canada and Mexico
The 48-team FIFA World Cup 2026 will be played in Canada, Mexico and the United States.
Which of the following European teams failed to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026 after losing in the play-off finals on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Italy
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Czechia, Sweden and Türkiye qualified through the play-off finals, while Italy missed out.
From 1 April 2026, CBIC removed which value cap per consignment on courier exports?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh
The existing ₹10 lakh value limit per consignment for courier exports was completely removed from 1 April 2026.
Under CBIC's new Return to Origin (RTO) mechanism, uncleared courier imports will be returned after how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 15 days
Uncleared courier imports beyond 15 days are to be returned through a simplified RTO process.
In March 2026 the Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth about ₹1,950 crore with BEL for which equipment for the IAF?
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Correct answer: B — Two Mountain Radars
The contract is for procurement of two Mountain Radars with associated equipment and infrastructure for the IAF, at about ₹1,950 crore.
The Mountain Radar ordered for the IAF in March 2026 was designed and developed by which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: C — Electronics & Radar Development Establishment
The Mountain Radar is indigenously designed and developed by the Electronics & Radar Development Establishment of DRDO.
India leads the world in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under which international agreement?
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Correct answer: B — Nagoya Protocol
India is the global leader in issuing IRCCs under the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing.
As reported in March 2026, which country is second after India in the number of IRCCs issued under the Nagoya Protocol?
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Correct answer: A — France
India (3,561) is followed by France with 964 certificates, then Spain (320) and Argentina (257).
Consider the following statements: 1. India accounts for over 56% of all IRCCs issued worldwide under the Nagoya Protocol. 2. All 142 countries registered on the ABS Clearing-House have issued IRCCs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India has issued 3,561 of 6,311 IRCCs (over 56%); of the 142 registered countries, only 34 have issued IRCCs.
Where was the Madhya Pradesh–Uttar Pradesh Sahyog Sammelan held on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Varanasi
The MP-UP Cooperation Conference was held in Varanasi on 31 March 2026.
The MoU signed at the MP-UP Sahyog Sammelan between the Kashi Vishwanath Temple Trust and the Mahakaleshwar temple is expected to help preparations for which event?
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Correct answer: B — Simhastha 2028, Ujjain
CM Mohan Yadav said the experience gained in Varanasi would be useful for preparations for Simhastha-2028 in Ujjain.
From which date did the first phase of Census 2027 begin, as announced on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Registrar General said the first phase of Census 2027 would begin from 1 April 2026.
Census 2027 is which census in India's series, and which since Independence?
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Correct answer: B — 16th in series, 8th since Independence
Census 2027 will be the 16th in the series and the 8th since Independence; the last census was in 2011.
What is the reference date of Census 2027 for most of India?
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Correct answer: C — 00:00 hours, 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for Ladakh, snow-bound J&K, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. It is the first census in India to be conducted digitally, with a self-enumeration option. 2. Enumeration of castes will be done during the first phase (House Listing). 3. The self-enumeration portal and mobile app are available in 16 languages. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Census 2027 is the first digital census with self-enumeration, available in 16 languages; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first.
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the WTO, which concluded on 30 March 2026, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — Yaoundé, Cameroon
MC14 was held in Yaoundé, Cameroon, and concluded on 30 March 2026.
Who led the Indian delegation at the WTO's MC14?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal led the Indian delegation to MC14.
At MC14, India did not agree to incorporating which agreement into the WTO framework as an Annex 4 agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Investment Facilitation for Development Agreement
India did not agree to incorporation of the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement as an Annex 4 agreement.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of WTO MC14: 1. Members reached convergence on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions. 2. Ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations with the aim of making recommendations to MC15. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Convergence could not be reached on the e-commerce moratorium; ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations aiming at recommendations to MC15.
What was India's IIP growth rate for February 2026 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5.2%
IIP grew 5.2% in February 2026 (4.8% in January 2026); manufacturing grew 6.0% and mining 3.1%.
Which of the three IIP sectors recorded the lowest growth in February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Electricity
Growth in February 2026: mining 3.1%, manufacturing 6.0%, electricity 2.3% – electricity was the lowest.
Chandrikapersad Santokhi, who died on 30 March 2026, was a former President of which country?
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Correct answer: D — Suriname
Santokhi was President of Suriname from 2020 to 2025; he died on 30 March 2026 aged 67.
Recalling former Suriname President Chandrikapersad Santokhi, PM Modi noted that he had taken his oath of office in which language?
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Correct answer: A — Sanskrit
PM Modi recalled that Santokhi won many hearts when he took his oath in Sanskrit.
Under the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, a non-feasible portion of a mineral block can be excluded if it contains less than what share of the block's estimated mineral resources?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The rules allow exclusion of non-feasible portions holding less than 25% of the block's total estimated resources.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026: 1. For blocks auctioned after 30 March 2026, the additional two-year period for executing a mining lease is available to all blocks regardless of forest land. 2. A unified mining portal will issue the letter of intent automatically on receipt of the first instalment of upfront payment and/or performance security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The extra two years beyond the initial three is now allowed only for blocks involving forest land.
On which date did the Ministry of Mines notify the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 30 March 2026
The rules were notified on 30 March 2026; the previous amendment to the Auction Rules was on 17 October 2025, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2025 took effect on 1 September 2025.
Under the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026, the one-time addition of contiguous area to a mining lease for deep-seated minerals cannot exceed what share of the existing area?
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Correct answer: A — 10%
The Ministry of Mines said the contiguous area cannot exceed 10% for a mining lease and 30% for a composite licence.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. State governments must permit inclusion of an associated mineral in a mining lease within 30 days of the application. 2. Future mining leases for minor minerals other than sand will be granted only after exploration up to G3 level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines release.
On 30 March 2026, how many more proposals were approved under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 29
MeitY approved 29 more proposals under ECMS, after 46 applications approved earlier.
The ECMS approvals of 30 March 2026 include India's first facility for which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — Rare earth permanent magnets
The approvals include India's first SMD passive plant for tantalum capacitors, first flexible PCB plant and first rare earth permanent magnet facility.
The 29 ECMS proposals approved on 30 March 2026 are expected to generate how many direct jobs?
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Correct answer: B — 14,246
The approvals are expected to generate 14,246 direct jobs, with projected investment of ₹7,104 crore and production of ₹84,515 crore.
Which agency conducted the competitive bidding for supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
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Correct answer: D — Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
SECI conducted competitive bidding for the supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the SIGHT programme.
About how much green ammonia per annum was allocated to the fertiliser sector under the agreements exchanged on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 7.24 lakh tonnes
Minister J P Nadda said about 7.24 lakh tonnes per annum of green ammonia had been allocated.
Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission: 1. Its outlay is ₹19,744 crore. 2. It targets production of at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Mission has an outlay of ₹19,744 crore and targets at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030.
The indigenous bio-bitumen technology highlighted in March 2026 was developed by CSIR–Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun, and which other CSIR lab?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR–Central Road Research Institute
The technology was developed by CSIR–Central Road Research Institute (CRRI), New Delhi, and CSIR–IIP, Dehradun.
How many mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, a record for a single financial year?
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Correct answer: B — 30
The Ministry of Mines said 30 mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, while more than 200 were auctioned.