MPESB (Vyapam) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the Commerce Ministry (May 2026), India–Africa bilateral trade in 2025-26 stood at about:
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Correct answer: A — US$93.69 billion
Bilateral trade reached US$93.69 billion in 2025-26 (exports US$45.42 bn, imports US$48.27 bn); US$3.4 trillion is the value of AfCFTA.
Consider the following statements about India–Africa trade, as stated at the IAFS-IV business curtain raiser (May 2026): 1. In 2025-26, India's imports from Africa were higher than its exports to Africa. 2. India and Africa share the ambition of tripling bilateral trade by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct: imports were US$48.27 bn against exports of US$45.42 bn. The stated ambition is doubling, not tripling, trade by 2030.
India's chairship of the Common Criteria Development Board (CCDB) for 2026–2028 was confirmed at a CCRA meeting held in April 2026 in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Tokyo
It was confirmed at the 1st Quarter Meeting of the CCRA held from 14 to 16 April 2026 in Tokyo, Japan.
Consider the following statements about India and the Common Criteria Recognition Arrangement (CCRA): 1. India has been a member of the CCRA since September 2013 as a Certificate Authorizing Nation. 2. CERT-In acts as India's official certification body for IT security evaluations under the Common Criteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India joined on 16 September 2013; the official certification body is MeitY's STQC Directorate, not CERT-In.
As per the Commerce Ministry, what was the European Union's rank among markets for Indian seafood exports in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — Third
The EU emerged as the third-largest market, with 18.94% of total export value (US$1.593 billion).
Consider the following statements about India's seafood exports to the EU (May 2026): 1. India had been omitted from the EU's Implementing Regulation (EU) 2024/2598 on third countries allowed to export from September 2026. 2. EU Delegated Regulation (EU) 2023/905 concerns the use of antimicrobials in animals whose products are exported to the EU. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's omission was in Regulation (EU) 2024/2598, and Regulation (EU) 2023/905 requires exported animals and products to be free of antimicrobials used for growth promotion or reserved for humans.
What is the financial outlay of the Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects approved by the Cabinet in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹37,500 crore
The scheme has an outlay of ₹37,500 crore; ₹8,500 crore was the earlier scheme approved in January 2024.
Under the 2026 coal/lignite gasification scheme, the financial incentive for any single project is capped at:
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Correct answer: A — ₹5,000 crore
The cap is ₹5,000 crore per project, ₹9,000 crore per product (except SNG and urea) and ₹12,000 crore per entity group.
Consider the following statements about India's coal gasification push: 1. India has a national target of gasifying 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030. 2. Under the 2026 scheme, the incentive is capped at 20% of the cost of plant and machinery. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The scheme advances the 100 MT-by-2030 target (building on the National Coal Gasification Mission, 2021) and offers up to 20% of plant and machinery cost.
For kharif marketing season 2026-27, which crop got the highest absolute increase in MSP over the previous year?
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Correct answer: C — Sunflower seed
Sunflower seed got the highest increase (₹622 per quintal), followed by cotton (₹557), nigerseed (₹515) and sesamum (₹500).
Under the kharif MSP 2026-27, the expected margin over cost of production is highest for which crop?
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Correct answer: D — Moong
Moong has the highest expected margin (61%), followed by bajra (56%), maize (56%) and tur/arhar (54%).
Consider the following statements about Minimum Support Prices (MSP): 1. Fixing MSP at least at 1.5 times the all-India weighted average cost of production was announced in the Union Budget 2014-15. 2. The MSP of paddy (common) for marketing season 2026-27 is ₹2,441 per quintal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The 1.5-times-cost principle was announced in the Union Budget 2018-19, as the Cabinet release states.
How much was released on 13 May 2026 as the first instalment of mother sanction for 2026-27 under the CSS for infrastructure of district and subordinate courts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹401.50 crore
Arjun Ram Meghwal released ₹401.50 crore to States/UTs through PFMS as the first instalment for 2026-27.
Consider the following statements about the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for Development of Infrastructure Facilities for District and Subordinate Courts: 1. The Department of Justice has been running this effort since 1993-94. 2. Union Territories share its cost with the Centre in a 90:10 ratio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The fund-sharing pattern is 60:40 for most states, 90:10 for north-eastern and two Himalayan states, and 100% central for UTs.
The Judicial Infrastructure Advisory Committee constituted by the Chief Justice of India on 12 May 2026 is chaired by:
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Correct answer: B — Justice Aravind Kumar
The committee was constituted under the chairmanship of Justice Aravind Kumar, Judge, Supreme Court of India.
According to Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal (May 2026), India achieved record exports of about how much?
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Correct answer: C — US$863 billion
Goyal said India achieved record exports of US$863 billion and set an aspirational target of US$1 trillion for the current year.
As stated by Piyush Goyal in May 2026, over the last three and a half years India has covered how many developed economies through how many FTAs?
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Correct answer: D — 38 economies through 9 FTAs
India has covered 38 developed and prosperous economies through nine FTAs, four already operational and five expected within 12 months.
What was the aggregate net profit of public sector banks in FY 2025-26, as announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.98 lakh crore
Aggregate net profit rose 11.1% to a record ₹1.98 lakh crore; ₹3.21 lakh crore was the operating profit and ₹86,971 crore the recoveries.
Consider the following statements about public sector banks as of 31 March 2026: 1. Their gross NPA ratio was 1.93% and net NPA ratio 0.39%. 2. Their aggregate CRAR of 16.6% was above the regulatory requirement of 11.5%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Finance Ministry's FY 2025-26 PSB performance release.
FY 2025-26 marked which consecutive year of aggregate profitability for public sector banks?
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Correct answer: D — Fourth
The record ₹1.98 lakh crore profit marked the fourth consecutive year of aggregate profitability for PSBs.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (base 2024=100) for April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 3.48%
Retail inflation was 3.48% (provisional) in April 2026; 3.40% was March, 4.20% food inflation and 3.16% urban inflation.
Consider the following statements about the CPI release for April 2026: 1. Food inflation (CFPI) was lower than headline CPI inflation. 2. Prices for the CPI are collected by the NSO from 1,407 urban markets and 1,465 villages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Food inflation (4.20%) was higher than headline CPI inflation (3.48%).
What is the size of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool launched by the Department of Financial Services in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — US$1.5 billion
BMIP is a US$1.5 billion pool with a sovereign guarantee of US$1.4 billion (₹12,980 crore).
Which entity is the pool administrator of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool?
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Correct answer: D — GIC Re
GIC Re is the pool administrator; policies are issued by domestic member insurers such as New India Assurance.
The Country Strategic Opportunities Programme (COSOP) launched in May 2026 is a strategy between India and which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — International Fund for Agricultural Development
The eight-year COSOP for 2026–2033 was launched by the Government of India with IFAD.
Consider the following statements about the India–IFAD partnership: 1. India's partnership with IFAD spans nearly five decades, with 35 rural development projects implemented in India. 2. The COSOP 2026–2033 has three strategic priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The COSOP 2026–2033 has two strategic priorities: rural resilience and knowledge systems for scaling.
In the May 2026 MoU with I4C on mule accounts, 'RBIH' stands for:
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Correct answer: C — Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
RBIH is the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub, which signed the MoU with the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre.
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Home Affairs
I4C is part of the Ministry of Home Affairs, and its Suspect Registry data will feed RBIH's AI fraud detection.
What cash prize accompanies each National Florence Nightingale Award?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,00,000
Each award includes a certificate of merit, a cash prize of ₹1,00,000 and a medal.
The National Florence Nightingale Awards 2026 were conferred on 12 May 2026, which is observed as:
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Correct answer: B — International Nurses Day
The awards were presented on International Nurses Day, 12 May, with the theme 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Empowered Nurses Save Lives'.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 come into force nationwide, as notified on 11 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 1 July 2026
The Centre notified that the Act comes into force across all rural areas from 1 July 2026, when MGNREGA, 2005 stands repealed.
How many days of wage employment in a financial year does the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee to an eligible rural household?
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Correct answer: D — 125 days
The Act guarantees 125 days of wage employment a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.
Consider the following statements about the transition to the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 will stand repealed from the date the new Act comes into force. 2. All existing MGNREGA job cards become invalid on that date and every worker must register afresh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. e-KYC verified MGNREGA job cards remain valid under VB–G RAM G until Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Cards are issued.
At the 5th IGoM on West Asia on 11 May 2026, India's LPG rolling stock was reported to be enough for how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 45 days
India had 45 days of LPG rolling stock; crude oil and natural gas were 60 days each.
Consider the following statements about the 5th IGoM on West Asia (11 May 2026): 1. The meeting was chaired by the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas. 2. The fertiliser stock of 199.65 LMT covered more than half of the assessed Kharif 2026 requirement of 390.54 LMT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The IGoM was chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh; Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri attended as a member.
As per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin for January–March 2026, what was the overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above (CWS)?
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Correct answer: D — 55.5%
Overall LFPR was 55.5%; 55.8% was the previous quarter, 52.8% the WPR and 58.2% the rural LFPR.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin for January–March 2026: 1. The share of rural workers engaged in agriculture rose compared with the previous quarter. 2. On average, 57.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed during the quarter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The rural share of workers in agriculture fell to 55.8% from 58.5% in October–December 2025.
Before becoming Chairman & Managing Director of SAIL in May 2026, Dr Ashok Kumar Panda served as the company's
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Correct answer: D — Director (Finance)
Panda was SAIL's Director (Finance) and also held additional charge of Director (Commercial) for about nine months.
SAIL's next phase of capacity expansion, mentioned by its new CMD in May 2026, targets what capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 35 MTPA
Dr Panda said SAIL is on track for its next phase of capacity expansion to 35 MTPA.
National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, recalls which event of 1998?
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Correct answer: A — The nuclear tests at Pokhran
PM Modi recalled on 11 May 2026 that the nuclear tests at Pokhran on this day in 1998 introduced the world to India's capabilities.
The single-tube multiplex real-time RT-PCR for dengue, chikungunya and Zika, licensed by ICMR on National Technology Day 2026, was developed at which institute?
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Correct answer: C — ICMR-NIV
The multiplex RT-PCR was developed at ICMR–National Institute of Virology (NIV); NIRWoH developed the PSP94 ELISA and NIRBID the Factor VIII inhibitor test.
On which dates will India host the 1st International Big Cat Summit in New Delhi, as announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 1–2 June 2026
Bhupender Yadav said India will host the 1st International Big Cat Summit on 1 and 2 June in New Delhi.
Which of the following is NOT among the seven big cats that the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) works to protect?
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Correct answer: C — Clouded leopard
IBCA covers the tiger, lion, cheetah, leopard, snow leopard, jaguar and puma; the clouded leopard is not in the list.
The SEHAT Mission launched on 11 May 2026 is a joint national mission of which two bodies?
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Correct answer: B — ICAR and ICMR
SEHAT is a joint national mission of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Consider the following statements about the SEHAT Mission: 1. Its priority areas include evaluation of bio-fortified crops and occupational health of agricultural workers. 2. It was launched jointly by the Union Health Minister and the Union Agriculture Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. JP Nadda (Health) and Shivraj Singh Chouhan (Agriculture) launched it; priorities include bio-fortified crops, integrated farming and farmers' occupational health.
The Forum of Regulators, which held its 100th meeting on 11 May 2026, was established in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
FOR was established in 2005; the 100th meeting marked 21 years of its journey. (2003 is the year of the Electricity Act.)
Consider the following statements about the Forum of Regulators (FOR): 1. It brings together the Central and State electricity regulatory commissions. 2. The Chairperson of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission also heads FOR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. FOR is a statutory platform of Central and State ERCs, and Jishnu Barua is Chairperson of CERC/FOR.
PMGSY-IV was formally launched on 10 May 2026 at Bhairunda, which lies in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
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Correct answer: C — Sehore
Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched PMGSY-IV at Bhairunda in Sehore district; Vidisha was mentioned only for separate road approvals.
How many roads were approved for Madhya Pradesh under PMGSY-IV at the Bhairunda launch on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 973
MP got approval for 973 roads of 2,117.52 km costing ₹1,763.08 crore; 987 is the number of habitations to benefit and 259 roads were for the Vidisha region.
Consider the following statements about PMGSY-IV: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet for the period FY 2026-27 to 2030-31. 2. Unconnected habitations with a population of 250+ in North-Eastern and hill States/UTs are eligible under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Cabinet approved PMGSY-IV on 11 September 2024 for FY 2024-25 to 2028-29; norms are 500+ in plains, 250+ in NE/hill/special areas and 100+ in LWE districts.
Which large state was honoured for connecting the highest number of habitations (31,287) in 25 years of PMGSY?
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Correct answer: D — Bihar
Bihar was first with 31,287 habitations, followed by Madhya Pradesh (17,493) and Odisha (16,990).
At the 10 May 2026 review, Amit Shah asked that the early warning system plan for high-risk lakes be expanded to cover at least how many lakes?
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Correct answer: B — 60
Shah said at least 60 lakes should be included in the plan that originally covered 30 high-risk lakes.
Following the Home Minister's earlier flood reviews, the advance period of rainfall and flood forecasts by IMD and the Central Water Commission was extended:
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Correct answer: C — From 3 days to 7 days
PIB notes that IMD and CWC extended the advance period of rainfall and flood forecasts from 3 days to 7 days.
Consider the following statements about the flood and heatwave review of 10 May 2026: 1. Amit Shah suggested using the CAMPA Fund to make environmental balance efforts more multi-dimensional. 2. He asked ministries to build new apps and portals for each disaster instead of using existing ones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Shah asked officials to consolidate and improve existing apps and portals rather than create new ones.
Which trio won the women's recurve team gold for India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2 in Shanghai on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Kumari, Ankita Bhakat, Kumkum Mohod
The gold-winning team was Deepika Kumari, Ankita Bhakat and Kumkum Mohod.
In the final of the women's recurve team event at the Archery World Cup Stage 2 (May 2026), India beat which team in a shoot-off?
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Correct answer: C — China
India beat hosts China 5-4 (28-26 in the shoot-off); South Korea was beaten in the semi-finals.
The Indian women's recurve team's gold in May 2026 was its first Archery World Cup women's team gold since which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2021
It was India's first World Cup women's team gold since 2021.
Which Vietnamese port did the Indian Navy's oceanographic research vessel INS Sagardhwani visit from 4 to 8 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Cam Ranh
INS Sagardhwani visited Cam Ranh, Vietnam from 4 to 8 May 2026.
During INS Sagardhwani's May 2026 visit to Vietnam, scientists from which DRDO laboratory engaged with the Institute of Oceanography, Nha Trang?
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Correct answer: D — Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL)
Scientists from NPOL (Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory), DRDO, engaged with researchers of the Institute of Oceanography, Nha Trang.
Who was appointed as the next Chief of Defence Staff on 9 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd)
Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd) was appointed CDS, succeeding Gen Anil Chauhan, whose tenure ends on 30 May 2026.
At the time of his appointment as the next Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026, Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was heading which command?
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Correct answer: B — Western Naval Command
Vice Adm Krishna Swaminathan has been Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Naval Command since 31 July 2025.
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, named the next Navy Chief in May 2026, is a specialist in which field?
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Correct answer: D — Communication and Electronic Warfare
Commissioned on 1 July 1987, he is a Communication and Electronic Warfare specialist.
Consider the following statements about the Chief of Defence Staff appointed in May 2026: 1. The Chief of Defence Staff also functions as Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. 2. Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani was commissioned into the 8 Garhwal Rifles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CDS also functions as Secretary, DMA, and Subramani was commissioned into 8 Garhwal Rifles on 14 December 1985.
What is the annual premium under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) for ₹2 lakh accident cover?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20
PMSBY offers ₹2 lakh accident cover for ₹20 a year; ₹436 is the PMJJBY premium.
What is the entry age range for subscribers under the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18–40 years
APY is open to people aged 18–40 who are not income-tax payers; 18–50 is PMJJBY and 18–70 is PMSBY.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Suraksha schemes: 1. PMJJBY provides life cover of ₹2 lakh to people aged 18–50 years. 2. PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY were launched in 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The three schemes were launched on 9 May 2015 and completed 11 years on 9 May 2026.
Which district panchayat was named Best District Panchayat under the National Panchayat Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sepahijala (Tripura)
Sepahijala in Tripura won the Best District Panchayat award with ₹5 crore; Ganjam and Coimbatore followed, and Harippad was the Best Block.
How many panchayats were selected for the National Panchayat Awards 2025 announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 42
42 panchayats from 17 States/UTs were selected; 34 of them were Gram Panchayats under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar.
Consider the following statements about the National Panchayat Awards 2025: 1. Under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar, Gram Panchayats were awarded across nine themes of Localisation of Sustainable Development Goals. 2. Karnataka won the highest number of awards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. 34 Gram Panchayats won across the nine LSDG themes, and Karnataka led with six awards, ahead of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha with five each.
For how many Assembly constituencies did the ECI publish Index Cards and Statistical Reports after the 2026 Assembly elections and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: B — 830
Index Cards and Statistical Reports were published for all 830 Assembly constituencies that went to polls.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's publication of election data in May 2026: 1. It was the first time that Statistical Reports were published within 72 hours of the declaration of poll results. 2. A re-poll was scheduled for the Falta Assembly constituency of Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The re-poll was scheduled for 144-Falta Assembly constituency of West Bengal on 21 May 2026.
Where was the second round of India–Canada CEPA negotiations held from 4 to 8 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi
The second round was held at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi, hosted by the Department of Commerce.
When and where is the next (third) round of India–Canada CEPA negotiations scheduled, as per the joint statement of May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — July 2026, Ottawa
The next round is scheduled for July 2026 in Ottawa, with intersessional engagements in the interim.