KVS / NVS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the US proclamation of 19 September 2025, what payment must accompany H-1B petitions for the restriction on entry not to apply?
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Correct answer: A — $100,000
The proclamation restricts entry of H-1B specialty-occupation workers except where petitions are accompanied or supplemented by a payment of $100,000.
For how long does the H-1B entry restriction in the US proclamation of September 2025 remain in force, absent extension?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
The restriction expires 12 months after its effective date of 21 September 2025, unless extended.
Which provisions of the US Immigration and Nationality Act did the H-1B proclamation of 19 September 2025 invoke?
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Correct answer: D — Sections 212(f) and 215(a)
The restriction on entry was imposed pursuant to sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the INA.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the US H-1B proclamation: 1. The MEA said the measure is likely to have humanitarian consequences by way of disruption caused for families. 2. The MEA said the full implications were being studied by all concerned, including Indian industry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the implications were being studied, including by Indian industry, and that the measure was likely to have humanitarian consequences for families.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Union Congress held, at which India was re-elected to the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council?
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Correct answer: A — Dubai
India was re-elected to both councils at the 28th UPU Congress held in Dubai, UAE.
Since which year has India been a member of the Universal Postal Union?
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Correct answer: C — 1876
India has been a member of the UPU since 1876.
Where did the third round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations conclude on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Queenstown
The third round, held from 15 to 19 September 2025, concluded in Queenstown, New Zealand.
When were the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations formally launched?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was formally launched on 16 March 2025 at a meeting between Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Trade Minister Todd McClay.
What was India's bilateral merchandise trade with New Zealand in 2024–25, as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — USD 1.3 billion
India–New Zealand merchandise trade was USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, growth of nearly 49%.
Singer Zubeen Garg, who died on 19 September 2025, was a cultural icon of which state?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
Zubeen Garg was regarded as Assam's cultural icon.
Zubeen Garg was in Singapore in September 2025 to perform at which event?
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Correct answer: A — North East India Festival
He had travelled to Singapore to perform at the North East India Festival 2025.
To what level did Japan's R&I upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB+
R&I upgraded India to 'BBB+' from 'BBB', retaining a Stable outlook.
Which agency upgraded India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025, before R&I's September upgrade?
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Correct answer: D — S&P
S&P upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025; Morningstar DBRS upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB (low)' in May 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's sovereign rating upgrades in 2025: 1. R&I's upgrade in September 2025 was the third upgrade of India by a sovereign rating agency that year. 2. R&I changed India's outlook from Stable to Positive. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: it was the third upgrade of 2025, and R&I retained the Stable outlook while raising the rating to BBB+.
With which state's investment promotion agency did Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders sign an MoU on 19 September 2025 to explore a greenfield shipyard on the eastern coast?
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Correct answer: C — Tamil Nadu
MDL signed the MoU with Guidance Tamil Nadu, the state's nodal agency for investment promotion, at Bhavnagar.
The new port at Bahuda, covered by an MoU exchanged at Bhavnagar in September 2025, is proposed in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Odisha
The MoU among Paradip Port, Visakhapatnam Port, Sagarmala Finance Corporation and the Government of Odisha is for a 150 MTPA port at Bahuda in Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the maritime MoUs exchanged at Bhavnagar in September 2025: 1. Twenty-seven MoUs with investment potential of over ₹66,000 crore were exchanged. 2. A Water Metro project for Patna was agreed between IWAI and the Government of Bihar. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 27 MoUs worth over ₹66,000 crore were exchanged, including a ₹908 crore Patna Water Metro MoU between IWAI and Bihar.
Which shipyard designed and built ICGS Adamya, commissioned on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Goa Shipyard Limited
ICGS Adamya was designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited with over 60% indigenous content.
Consider the following statements about ICGS Adamya: 1. It is the last of a series of eight Adamya-class Fast Patrol Vessels. 2. It was commissioned at Visakhapatnam. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: Adamya is the first of the eight Adamya-class FPVs, and it was commissioned at Paradip Port, Odisha.
Which form can an elector file to apply for deletion of an entry from the electoral roll, as referred to by the ECI in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Form 7
Form 7 is used to apply for deletion of an entry; filing it does not by itself delete the entry.
Consider the following statements based on the ECI's statement of 19 September 2025: 1. Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, no name is deleted without notice to the affected person and an opportunity of being heard. 2. Of 6,018 online deletion applications in Aland, Karnataka, 5,994 were accepted. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: only 24 of the 6,018 Aland applications were found genuine and accepted, while 5,994 were rejected.
Where will the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 be held?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The India-AI Impact Summit 2026 will be held on 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which three 'Sutras' guide the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet, Progress
The Summit is guided by the principles or Sutras of People, Planet and Progress.
Which emblem forms the core identity of the official logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
The logo's identity is the Ashoka Chakra, an emblem of ethical governance and constitutional values, with neural network flares radiating outward.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 announcements of 18 September 2025: 1. The Summit is the first to be hosted by a Global South nation. 2. Eight foundation model projects were launched under the IndiaAI Foundation Models pillar, selected from about 506 proposals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. MeitY said the Summit is being hosted for the first time by a Global South nation, and eight foundation model projects selected from about 506 proposals were launched.
After seven natural sites were added in September 2025, how many Indian properties are on UNESCO's Tentative List of World Heritage Sites?
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Correct answer: A — 69
The inclusion of seven natural sites raised India's count on the Tentative List from 62 to 69 properties.
Which cave serves as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age of the Holocene Epoch, as cited in the UNESCO Tentative List addition of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mawmluh Cave
The Meghalayan Age Caves, particularly Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch.
The Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam natural arch are features of which site added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tirumala Hills
Tirumala Hills in Andhra Pradesh feature the Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam (natural arch), representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth's history.
Consider the following pairs of sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025 and their states: 1. Naga Hill Ophiolite — Nagaland 2. Erra Matti Dibbalu — Kerala Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct. Naga Hill Ophiolite is in Nagaland, but Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills) is near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh; the Kerala site is Varkala Cliffs.
Consider the following statements about UNESCO's Tentative List as described in the Ministry of Culture release of 18 September 2025: 1. Inclusion in the Tentative List is a prerequisite for a site to be nominated to the World Heritage List. 2. After the September 2025 additions, cultural properties make up the largest share of India's Tentative List. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Under UNESCO's protocol, Tentative List inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, and India's 69 properties comprise 49 cultural, 17 natural and 3 mixed sites.
What was the last date for eligible central government employees and past retirees under NPS to opt for the Unified Pension Scheme?
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Correct answer: D — 30 September 2025
The Department of Financial Services said the last date to opt for UPS is 30 September 2025.
Under the DFS Office Memorandum of 25 August 2025, at least how long before superannuation must a UPS subscriber exercise the one-time switch to NPS?
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Correct answer: A — One year
The switch must be exercised at least one year before superannuation or three months before voluntary retirement, whichever is earlier.
With whom did Prime Minister Narendra Modi hold a telephone conversation on 18 September 2025 as head of Nepal's Interim Government?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
PM Modi spoke with Sushila Karki, Prime Minister of the Interim Government of Nepal, and congratulated her on her appointment.
For which upcoming occasion did PM Modi extend felicitations to Nepal during his call with PM Sushila Karki on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Day of Nepal
PM Modi extended felicitations on the occasion of the upcoming National Day of Nepal.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Karki telephone call of 18 September 2025: 1. PM Modi extended condolences for the loss of life during the recent protests in Nepal. 2. PM Modi conveyed India's full support to Nepal in its efforts towards restoring peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the PMO release records condolences for the loss of life during the protests and India's full support for restoring peace and stability in Nepal.
Which UAE institution's Managing Director co-chaired the 13th meeting of the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Abu Dhabi Investment Authority
Sheikh Hamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, Managing Director of the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA), co-chaired the meeting with Piyush Goyal.
In which year was the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments established?
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Correct answer: B — 2013
The Joint Task Force was established in 2013 as a forum for strengthening economic ties and resolving investor issues.
Consider the following statements based on the 13th India-UAE Joint Task Force meeting: 1. India-UAE bilateral non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in the first half of 2025. 2. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was implemented in May 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in H1 2025 (+34%), but the CEPA was implemented in May 2022, not 2024.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise that concluded on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — INS Trikand
The Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile stealth frigate INS Trikand.
At which Greek naval base was the harbour phase of the maiden India–Greece maritime exercise held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Salamis
The harbour phase was held from 13 to 17 September 2025 at Salamis Naval Base.
Consider the following statements about the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise of September 2025: 1. Its sea phase included joint anti-submarine warfare and cross-deck helicopter operations. 2. Its pre-sail conference was held aboard INS Trikand. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The sea phase included joint ASW and cross-deck helicopter operations, but the pre-sail conference was held aboard HS Themistokles, an Elli-class frigate of the Hellenic Navy.
Which institution locally organised the 8th Annual Contractors' Meeting of the International Seabed Authority held in India in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-NIO Goa
The meeting, hosted by MoES, was locally organised by CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), Goa, from 18 to 20 September 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The International Seabed Authority was established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. 2. India is the only country to hold two polymetallic sulphides (PMS) exploration contracts with the ISA. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The ISA was established under UNCLOS, and the second PMS contract signed on 15 September 2025 made India the only country with two PMS exploration contracts.
What is the name of the new EPFO facility announced in September 2025 that lets members view a summary of their PF passbook within the member portal?
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Correct answer: D — Passbook Lite
EPFO introduced 'Passbook Lite' in its member portal for a simple summarised view of contributions, withdrawals and balance.
In the EPFO reforms of September 2025, 'Annexure K', made available online to members, refers to which document?
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Correct answer: A — Transfer Certificate for PF transfer
EPFO enabled online access to Annexure K, the Transfer Certificate, for transparency in PF transfers.
From which district did PM Modi launch the 'Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan' on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PM Modi launched the Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan along with the 8th Rashtriya Poshan Maah from Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
Which edition of the Rashtriya Poshan Maah was launched along with the Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
The 8th Rashtriya Poshan Maah was launched along with the SNSP Abhiyaan in Dhar on 17 September 2025.
The national mission against sickle cell anaemia, under which the one-croreth screening card was handed over in Madhya Pradesh in September 2025, was launched in 2023 from which place?
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Correct answer: A — Shahdol
The mission was launched in 2023 from Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh, where the first sickle cell screening card was issued.
Consider the following statements about the Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan: 1. More than 10 lakh health camps were planned in government health facilities from 17 September to 2 October 2025. 2. The Prime Minister urged women to get screened for diseases including cancer, anaemia, TB and sickle cell. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: over 10 lakh health camps were planned for 17 September–2 October 2025, and the PM appealed to women to get screened for cancer, anaemia, TB and sickle cell.
Which district of Madhya Pradesh hosts the PM MITRA Park that PM Modi linked to the legacy of Devi Ahilyabai Holkar on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dhar
Speaking at Dhar on 17 September 2025, PM Modi said Devi Ahilyabai Holkar's legacy is now being advanced through the PM MITRA Park in Dhar.
According to the Prime Minister, approximately how much land has been allocated for the PM MITRA Park in Dhar?
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Correct answer: C — 1,300 acres
The Prime Minister noted that approximately 1,300 acres of land have been allocated for the PM MITRA Park in Dhar, with over 80 industrial units already allotted.
How many new jobs is the PM MITRA Park in Dhar expected to generate, as stated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3 lakh
The Prime Minister said the park is expected to generate three lakh new employment opportunities.
The '5F vision' for the textile industry, cited by the Prime Minister at Dhar, describes which sequence?
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Correct answer: D — Farm to Fibre, Fibre to Factory, Factory to Fashion, Fashion to Foreign
The PM said the government is working with the 5F vision for textiles: Farm to Fibre, Fibre to Factory, Factory to Fashion and Fashion to Foreign.
Where was the Combined Commanders' Conference 2025 held?
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Correct answer: D — Kolkata
The Combined Commanders' Conference 2025 was held in Kolkata, West Bengal, from 15 to 17 September 2025.
What was the theme of the Combined Commanders' Conference 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Year of Reforms – Transforming for the Future
This year's theme was 'Year of Reforms – Transforming for the Future'.
In which city did Saudi Arabia and Pakistan sign the Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Riyadh
Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman and PM Shehbaz Sharif signed the agreement in Riyadh during Sharif's state visit.
What is the core clause of the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both
The joint statement said the agreement states that any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan defence pact: 1. The MEA said the Government was aware that the development, which formalises a long-standing arrangement, had been under consideration. 2. The MEA said India would study its implications for national security as well as for regional and global stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the Government was aware the pact had been under consideration and that India would study its implications for national security and for regional and global stability.
Which ministry holds regulatory and stewardship responsibility for geothermal energy under the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Under the policy, regulatory and stewardship responsibilities for geothermal energy rest with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
How many geothermal projects, including pilot and resource assessment projects, had MNRE sanctioned as of the notification of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Five
MNRE has sanctioned five projects in the sector, including pilot initiatives and resource assessment projects.
Consider the following statements about the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025): 1. It promotes R&D in retrofitting abandoned oil wells and Enhanced/Advanced Geothermal Systems. 2. It covers direct uses such as district heating and Ground Source Heat Pumps besides power generation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the policy promotes R&D in hybrid geothermal-solar plants, retrofitting abandoned oil wells and EGS/AGS, and covers direct uses like district heating and GSHPs alongside electricity generation.
How many tribal citizens does the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, launched by PM Modi on 17 September 2025, aim to cover?
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Correct answer: C — 11 crore
The Abhiyan covers 11 crore tribal citizens across 1 lakh villages in 30 States/UTs.
Under the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, what is the name of the AI-based app meant to connect officials with tribal communities in their native languages?
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Correct answer: B — Adi Vaani
The Adi Vaani App, an AI-based language bridge, will connect government officers with tribal communities in their native languages.
Consider the following statements about the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan: 1. It is part of Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, observed from 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025. 2. Every village under it is to set up an Adi Sewa Kendra as a single-window citizen service centre. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Abhiyan is a landmark initiative of Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh (15 Nov 2024–15 Nov 2025), and every village will establish an Adi Sewa Kendra.
Under which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did the ECI revise guidelines for EVM ballot papers in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rule 49B
The ECI revised the existing guidelines under Rule 49B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, for the design and printing of EVM ballot papers.
Under the revised ECI guidelines of September 2025, what colour of paper is to be used for EVM ballot papers in Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Pink
For Assembly elections, pink-coloured paper of specified RGB values is to be used; ballot papers are printed on 70 GSM paper.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's revised EVM ballot paper guidelines of September 2025: 1. Candidates' photographs will be printed in colour, with the face occupying three-fourths of the photo space. 2. Serial numbers of candidates and NOTA will be printed in Devanagari numerals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Photographs will be in colour with the face covering three-fourths of the space, but serial numbers will be printed in the international form of Indian numerals, not Devanagari numerals.
What was the theme of World Ozone Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — From science to global action
The theme for World Ozone Day 2025 was 'From science to global action', emphasising how scientific discovery can guide policy and international cooperation.
According to UNDP's Resident Representative at the 31st World Ozone Day event, what reduction target in HCFC production and consumption has India achieved?
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Correct answer: D — 67.5%
UNDP Resident Representative Angela Lusigi said India achieved the 67.5% reduction target in HCFC production and consumption and completely phased out HCFC-141b.
World Ozone Day on 16 September commemorates the signing of which international agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Montreal Protocol
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
Consider the following statements about the ozone treaties: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol were the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification. 2. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed in 2016, deals with the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. On 16 September 2009 the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification, and the Kigali Amendment agreed on 15 October 2016 provides for the phase-down of HFCs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985. 2. Under the Kigali Amendment, India's HFC phase-down is to be implemented from 2028 onwards. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Vienna Convention was adopted and signed on 22 March 1985, and MoEFCC noted that the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment is to be implemented from 2028 onwards.
Over what period does the nationwide Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of the Department of Financial Services run?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July – 30 September 2025
DFS launched the three-month campaign from 1 July 2025 to 30 September 2025.
How many new PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts were opened in the first 2.5 months of the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign, as reported in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than 61 lakh
The campaign resulted in over 61 lakh new PMJDY accounts; 2.6 crore was the number of new enrolments under the three Jan Suraksha schemes.
Which of the following schemes are NOT among the flagship schemes targeted by the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of 2025? 1. Atal Pension Yojana 2. PM Suraksha Bima Yojana 3. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: A — 3 only
Only PM-KISAN is not targeted. The campaign covers PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY.
In which city did Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurate the new office of semiconductor design company ARM on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru
Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurated ARM's new office in Bengaluru on 16 September 2025.
Chips of which node did Ashwini Vaishnaw say would be designed at ARM's new Bengaluru unit?
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Correct answer: C — 2 nm
Vaishnaw said the new Bengaluru unit of ARM will design chips including 2 nm chips for products such as mobile phones.
According to Ashwini Vaishnaw at the ARM office launch in September 2025, what is the current size of India's electronics industry?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11.5 lakh crore
Vaishnaw said the current Indian electronics industry is worth ₹11.5 lakh crore.
What is the name of the strategic partnership between India and Denmark that the two Prime Ministers reaffirmed on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Green Strategic Partnership
Both leaders reaffirmed their commitment to further strengthen the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements based on the Modi–Frederiksen call of 16 September 2025: 1. Denmark was holding the Presidency of the Council of the European Union at the time. 2. Denmark was a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council at the time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PM Modi conveyed best wishes for Denmark's ongoing Presidency of the Council of the EU and its non-permanent membership of the UNSC.
To which UNESCO list is India seeking a multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva, as discussed by the Ministry of Culture in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
The nomination is for inscription on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Under which UNESCO convention would Chhath Mahaparva be inscribed on the intangible heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — 2003 Convention
The multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva is for the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Which of the following countries were represented by senior diplomats at the Ministry of Culture's IGNCA meeting of 16 September 2025 on the Chhath Mahaparva nomination?
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Correct answer: D — UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands
Senior diplomatic representatives of the UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands attended the IGNCA meeting; envoys to Mauritius and Fiji joined a separate virtual interaction later.
What is the number of the MANAS anti-drug helpline that Amit Shah urged greater use of at the ANTF heads conference in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1933
Amit Shah said greater use should be made of the MANAS helpline number 1933.
How much quantity of drugs was destroyed under the NCB drug disposal campaign launched by Amit Shah on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1.37 lakh kg
Under the campaign, 1.37 lakh kilograms of drugs worth ₹4,800 crore were destroyed at 11 locations.
Consider the following statements about the three-pronged anti-drug strategy outlined by Amit Shah at the second ANTF heads conference: 1. It calls for a humane approach towards the drug supply chain. 2. It calls for a strategic approach towards demand reduction. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. Shah called for a ruthless approach to the drug supply chain, a strategic approach to demand reduction and a humane approach to harm reduction.
Who led the USTR team that held trade talks in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Brendan Lynch
The team from the Office of the USTR was led by Brendan Lynch, Chief Negotiator for the India-US Bilateral Trade Agreement negotiations.
What did India and the US decide at the end of the trade talks held in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — To intensify efforts for early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement
The Commerce Ministry said it was decided to intensify efforts to achieve early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement.