Kerala PSC Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who assumed the appointment of Vice Chief of the Army Staff on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth
The Ministry of Defence said Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth assumed the appointment of VCOAS on 1 April 2026.
Who took over as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command, from Lt Gen RC Tiwari in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Lt Gen VMB Krishnan
Lt Gen VMB Krishnan, previously Quarter Master General, took over Eastern Command from Lt Gen RC Tiwari.
Who assumed command of the Army's Southern Command on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lt Gen Sandeep Jain
Lt Gen Sandeep Jain succeeded Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth as GOC-in-C, Southern Command.
What capital outlay for the Defence Services did the Ministry of Defence fully utilise in FY 2025-26 (Revised Estimates)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.86 lakh crore
The ministry fully utilised ₹1.86 lakh crore at the RE stage; ₹1.80 lakh crore was the original appropriation.
What was the overall utilisation of the defence budget, including MoD (civil) and pensions, in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 99.62%
The ministry said overall utilisation stood at 99.62% against the final allocation.
Who assumed charge as Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Chanchal Kumar
The ministry said Chanchal Kumar assumed charge on 1 April 2026, succeeding Sanjay Jaju.
Chanchal Kumar, the new Secretary of Information and Broadcasting, belongs to which IAS batch and cadre?
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Correct answer: C — 1992 batch, Bihar cadre
He is a 1992-batch IAS officer of the Bihar cadre.
Up to which date has the RoSCTL scheme for apparel and made-ups exports been extended?
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Correct answer: D — 30 September 2026
The Ministry of Textiles extended RoSCTL up to 30 September 2026 or until approval for the 16th Finance Commission cycle, whichever is earlier.
Since when has the Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) scheme been operational?
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Correct answer: A — 7 March 2019
The ministry said RoSCTL has been operational since 7 March 2019.
'Malwan', delivered to the Indian Navy on 31 March 2026, was built by which shipyard?
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Correct answer: D — Cochin Shipyard Limited
Malwan is the second of eight ASW Shallow Water Craft built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.
The anti-submarine craft 'Malwan' is named after a coastal town in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Malwan draws its name from the historic coastal town of Malwan in Maharashtra.
How many Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) did the CBDT sign in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 219
The CBDT entered into a record 219 APAs in FY 2025-26 (174 in the previous year and 125 the year before).
With which of the following countries did India sign its first-ever bilateral APA in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Sweden
FY 2025-26 saw India's first-ever bilateral APAs with France, Ireland, Indonesia and Sweden.
Consider the following statements about India's APA programme (as of March 2026): 1. The total number of APAs since inception is 1,034. 2. Bilateral APAs outnumber unilateral APAs in the total. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The total is 1,034 APAs, comprising 750 unilateral and 284 bilateral APAs, so unilateral APAs are more.
Which team became the 48th and final team to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026, on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Iraq
Iraq beat Bolivia 2-1 at Monterrey to become the 48th and final team to qualify.
The FIFA World Cup 2026, the first with 48 teams, is hosted jointly by:
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Correct answer: A — USA, Canada and Mexico
The 48-team FIFA World Cup 2026 will be played in Canada, Mexico and the United States.
Which of the following European teams failed to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026 after losing in the play-off finals on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Italy
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Czechia, Sweden and Türkiye qualified through the play-off finals, while Italy missed out.
From 1 April 2026, CBIC removed which value cap per consignment on courier exports?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh
The existing ₹10 lakh value limit per consignment for courier exports was completely removed from 1 April 2026.
Under CBIC's new Return to Origin (RTO) mechanism, uncleared courier imports will be returned after how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 15 days
Uncleared courier imports beyond 15 days are to be returned through a simplified RTO process.
In March 2026 the Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth about ₹1,950 crore with BEL for which equipment for the IAF?
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Correct answer: B — Two Mountain Radars
The contract is for procurement of two Mountain Radars with associated equipment and infrastructure for the IAF, at about ₹1,950 crore.
The Mountain Radar ordered for the IAF in March 2026 was designed and developed by which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: C — Electronics & Radar Development Establishment
The Mountain Radar is indigenously designed and developed by the Electronics & Radar Development Establishment of DRDO.
India leads the world in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under which international agreement?
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Correct answer: B — Nagoya Protocol
India is the global leader in issuing IRCCs under the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing.
As reported in March 2026, which country is second after India in the number of IRCCs issued under the Nagoya Protocol?
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Correct answer: A — France
India (3,561) is followed by France with 964 certificates, then Spain (320) and Argentina (257).
Consider the following statements: 1. India accounts for over 56% of all IRCCs issued worldwide under the Nagoya Protocol. 2. All 142 countries registered on the ABS Clearing-House have issued IRCCs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India has issued 3,561 of 6,311 IRCCs (over 56%); of the 142 registered countries, only 34 have issued IRCCs.
Which country topped India's group (Group C) in the AFC Asian Cup 2027 qualifiers final round and qualified for the Asian Cup?
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Correct answer: C — Singapore
Singapore topped Group C with 14 points to seal qualification; India beat Hong Kong 2-1 in Kochi on 31 March 2026 to finish on five points.
From which date did the first phase of Census 2027 begin, as announced on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Registrar General said the first phase of Census 2027 would begin from 1 April 2026.
Census 2027 is which census in India's series, and which since Independence?
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Correct answer: B — 16th in series, 8th since Independence
Census 2027 will be the 16th in the series and the 8th since Independence; the last census was in 2011.
What is the reference date of Census 2027 for most of India?
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Correct answer: C — 00:00 hours, 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for Ladakh, snow-bound J&K, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. It is the first census in India to be conducted digitally, with a self-enumeration option. 2. Enumeration of castes will be done during the first phase (House Listing). 3. The self-enumeration portal and mobile app are available in 16 languages. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Census 2027 is the first digital census with self-enumeration, available in 16 languages; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first.
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the WTO, which concluded on 30 March 2026, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — Yaoundé, Cameroon
MC14 was held in Yaoundé, Cameroon, and concluded on 30 March 2026.
Who led the Indian delegation at the WTO's MC14?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal led the Indian delegation to MC14.
At MC14, India did not agree to incorporating which agreement into the WTO framework as an Annex 4 agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Investment Facilitation for Development Agreement
India did not agree to incorporation of the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement as an Annex 4 agreement.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of WTO MC14: 1. Members reached convergence on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions. 2. Ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations with the aim of making recommendations to MC15. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Convergence could not be reached on the e-commerce moratorium; ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations aiming at recommendations to MC15.
The 'Bhavasagara' Referral Centre, designated as India's National Repository for Deep-Sea Fauna in March 2026, belongs to which institution?
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Correct answer: D — Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology, Kochi
'Bhavasagara' is the Referral Centre of CMLRE, Kochi, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Under which law was 'Bhavasagara' designated as a National Repository for Deep-Sea Fauna?
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Correct answer: A — Biological Diversity Act, 2002
The designation was conferred by MoEFCC under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
What was India's IIP growth rate for February 2026 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5.2%
IIP grew 5.2% in February 2026 (4.8% in January 2026); manufacturing grew 6.0% and mining 3.1%.
Which of the three IIP sectors recorded the lowest growth in February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Electricity
Growth in February 2026: mining 3.1%, manufacturing 6.0%, electricity 2.3% – electricity was the lowest.
Chandrikapersad Santokhi, who died on 30 March 2026, was a former President of which country?
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Correct answer: D — Suriname
Santokhi was President of Suriname from 2020 to 2025; he died on 30 March 2026 aged 67.
Recalling former Suriname President Chandrikapersad Santokhi, PM Modi noted that he had taken his oath of office in which language?
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Correct answer: A — Sanskrit
PM Modi recalled that Santokhi won many hearts when he took his oath in Sanskrit.
Under the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, a non-feasible portion of a mineral block can be excluded if it contains less than what share of the block's estimated mineral resources?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The rules allow exclusion of non-feasible portions holding less than 25% of the block's total estimated resources.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026: 1. For blocks auctioned after 30 March 2026, the additional two-year period for executing a mining lease is available to all blocks regardless of forest land. 2. A unified mining portal will issue the letter of intent automatically on receipt of the first instalment of upfront payment and/or performance security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The extra two years beyond the initial three is now allowed only for blocks involving forest land.
On which date did the Ministry of Mines notify the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 30 March 2026
The rules were notified on 30 March 2026; the previous amendment to the Auction Rules was on 17 October 2025, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2025 took effect on 1 September 2025.
Under the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026, the one-time addition of contiguous area to a mining lease for deep-seated minerals cannot exceed what share of the existing area?
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Correct answer: A — 10%
The Ministry of Mines said the contiguous area cannot exceed 10% for a mining lease and 30% for a composite licence.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. State governments must permit inclusion of an associated mineral in a mining lease within 30 days of the application. 2. Future mining leases for minor minerals other than sand will be granted only after exploration up to G3 level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines release.
On 30 March 2026, how many more proposals were approved under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 29
MeitY approved 29 more proposals under ECMS, after 46 applications approved earlier.
The ECMS approvals of 30 March 2026 include India's first facility for which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — Rare earth permanent magnets
The approvals include India's first SMD passive plant for tantalum capacitors, first flexible PCB plant and first rare earth permanent magnet facility.
The 29 ECMS proposals approved on 30 March 2026 are expected to generate how many direct jobs?
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Correct answer: B — 14,246
The approvals are expected to generate 14,246 direct jobs, with projected investment of ₹7,104 crore and production of ₹84,515 crore.
The optional home voting facility for electors above 85 years and Persons with Disabilities is provided under which provision?
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Correct answer: A — Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI provides the optional home voting facility under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per ECI data of 30 March 2026, which state had the highest number of electors aged 85+ approved for home voting?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
Kerala had 1,45,521 electors aged 85+ approved for home voting (71.27%), compared with 19,774 in Assam and 2,066 in Puducherry.
Which agency conducted the competitive bidding for supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
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Correct answer: D — Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
SECI conducted competitive bidding for the supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the SIGHT programme.
About how much green ammonia per annum was allocated to the fertiliser sector under the agreements exchanged on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 7.24 lakh tonnes
Minister J P Nadda said about 7.24 lakh tonnes per annum of green ammonia had been allocated.
Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission: 1. Its outlay is ₹19,744 crore. 2. It targets production of at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Mission has an outlay of ₹19,744 crore and targets at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030.
The indigenous bio-bitumen technology highlighted in March 2026 was developed by CSIR–Indian Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun, and which other CSIR lab?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR–Central Road Research Institute
The technology was developed by CSIR–Central Road Research Institute (CRRI), New Delhi, and CSIR–IIP, Dehradun.
How many mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, a record for a single financial year?
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Correct answer: B — 30
The Ministry of Mines said 30 mineral blocks were operationalised in FY 2025-26, while more than 200 were auctioned.
The Gyan Bharatam Survey, highlighted in the 132nd Mann Ki Baat on 29 March 2026, collects information about:
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Correct answer: D — Manuscripts
The PM said the objective of the Gyan Bharatam Survey is to collect information about manuscripts across the country, through the Gyan Bharatam App.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (March 2026), about how many artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan?
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Correct answer: C — 50 lakh
Nearly 50 lakh artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan; nearly 70,000 Amrit Sarovars have been built.
Chizami village, praised in Mann Ki Baat for women preserving over 150 traditional seed varieties in a community seed bank, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Nagaland
The PM cited Chizami village in Nagaland, where women preserve over 150 varieties of traditional seeds.
Match the place with its mention in Mann Ki Baat (29 March 2026): 1. Wangmun – a. Seed bank run by women 2. Chizami – b. Rooftop rainwater harvesting in Jampui Hills Which is the correct match?
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Correct answer: B — 1-b, 2-a
Wangmun village in Tripura's Jampui Hills adopted rooftop rainwater harvesting; Chizami village in Nagaland has a women-run community seed bank.
Which Indian athlete, mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in March 2026, became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour?
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Correct answer: B — Gulveer Singh
The PM said Gulveer Singh of Uttar Pradesh finished third in the New York City Half Marathon and became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour.
Who won the men's singles title at the Miami Open 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Jannik Sinner
Jannik Sinner beat Jiri Lehecka 6-4, 6-4 in the Miami Open final on 29 March 2026.
The tennis 'Sunshine Double' refers to winning which two tournaments in the same season?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Wells and Miami Open
The Sunshine Double means winning Indian Wells followed by Miami in the same season.
Before Jannik Sinner in 2026, who was the last man to complete the Sunshine Double?
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Correct answer: D — Roger Federer, 2017
The last male player to complete the double before Sinner was Roger Federer in 2017.
Consider the following statements about the Miami Open 2026 final: 1. Jannik Sinner defeated Jiri Lehecka of Czechia in straight sets. 2. Sinner became the eighth man to win both Indian Wells and Miami in the same season. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Sinner won 6-4, 6-4 against Czech Jiri Lehecka and became the eighth man to complete the Indian Wells–Miami double.
The India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), reviewed at a meeting on the sidelines of WTO MC14, was signed in:
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Correct answer: C — July 2025
The India-UK CETA was signed in July 2025 by PM Narendra Modi and PM Keir Starmer.
With which country's trade minister did Piyush Goyal discuss expediting 'CEPA' negotiations on the sidelines of WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Canada
Goyal's meeting with Canada's Minister of International Trade Maninder Sidhu focused on expediting the recently launched India-Canada CEPA negotiations.
Who is the EU Trade Commissioner whom Piyush Goyal met at WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Goyal held a bilateral meeting with EU Trade Commissioner Maroš Šefčovič on the sidelines of MC14.
Who was elected Mayor of Paris on 29 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Emmanuel Grégoire
The Paris city council elected Emmanuel Grégoire as mayor with 103 votes on 29 March 2026, succeeding Anne Hidalgo.
Emmanuel Grégoire, elected Mayor of Paris in March 2026, succeeded whom?
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Correct answer: A — Anne Hidalgo
Grégoire succeeded Anne Hidalgo as Mayor of Paris; the city council elected him with 103 votes on 29 March 2026.
The Tele-Law initiative is part of which scheme of the Ministry of Law and Justice?
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Correct answer: A — DISHA
Tele-Law is an initiative of the Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice (DISHA) scheme.
Who addressed the National Consultation 2026 on Tele-Law in New Delhi on 29 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan
Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan addressed the National Consultation 2026 on Tele-Law.
Whom did Aryna Sabalenka defeat in the Miami Open 2026 women's singles final?
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Correct answer: C — Coco Gauff
Sabalenka beat Coco Gauff 6-2, 4-6, 6-3 in the final on 28 March 2026.
By winning Indian Wells and Miami in 2026, Aryna Sabalenka became the first player to complete the 'Sunshine Double' since:
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Correct answer: D — Iga Swiatek, 2022
She became the first player to complete the Sunshine Double since Iga Swiatek in 2022.
Consider the following statements: 1. Aryna Sabalenka is only the fifth woman to complete the Sunshine Double. 2. The Miami Open 2026 was Sabalenka's first title at Miami. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
She is the fifth woman to complete the double. Miami 2026 was her second straight Miami title – she was the defending champion.
Under the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, the 'Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar' award is meant for scientists up to what age?
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Correct answer: C — 45 years
Vigyan Yuva–SSB encourages young scientists up to 45 years of age.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is administered by the RVP Secretariat located at which body?
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Correct answer: A — CSIR
The awards are administered by the RVP Secretariat, CSIR, under the chairmanship of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2026: 1. Self-nominations are allowed. 2. The 'Vigyan Team' award is given to teams of three or more researchers. 3. The awards are given in five categories. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Self-nominations are open, and Vigyan Team is for teams of three or more. There are four categories: Vigyan Ratna, Vigyan Shri, Vigyan Yuva–SSB and Vigyan Team.