CLAT Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In which country did Rajnath Singh inaugurate Tata Advanced Systems' Wheeled Armoured Platform plant on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Morocco
The TASL plant is in Berrechid, Morocco.
The Wheeled Armoured Platform (WhAP) 8x8 to be produced at the Berrechid plant was jointly designed by TASL and which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — DRDO
WhAP 8x8 was jointly designed by TASL and DRDO.
In which city is Tata Advanced Systems' defence manufacturing facility in Morocco located?
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Correct answer: C — Berrechid
The facility is in Berrechid, Morocco.
Consider the following statements about the TASL facility in Morocco: 1. It is the first such plant set up by an Indian private company in Africa. 2. It became operational three months behind schedule. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the facility became operational three months ahead of schedule.
Under the GST rate structure that took effect on 22 September 2025, what are the Merit Rate and the Standard Rate?
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Correct answer: A — 5% and 18%
The 56th GST Council recommended a two-rate structure with a Merit Rate of 5% and a Standard Rate of 18%.
What special de-merit GST rate did the 56th GST Council recommend for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: C — 40%
Alongside the 5% and 18% rates, the Council recommended a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
Under the GST reforms, the GST on hotel stays priced below ₹7,500 per day was changed to:
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Correct answer: B — 5% (without input tax credit)
GST on hotel stays below ₹7,500 a day was reduced from 12% to 5% without input tax credit.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council decisions: 1. The GST rate on coal was reduced from 18% to 5%. 2. GST on buses with a seating capacity of 10 or more was raised from 18% to 28%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the GST on coal was raised from 5% to 18% (with the ₹400 per tonne compensation cess removed), and GST on buses with 10+ seats was cut from 28% to 18%.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council: 1. The meeting was chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. 2. It recommended exempting all individual life and health insurance policies from GST. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Nirmala Sitharaman chaired the 56th meeting, which exempted all individual life and health insurance policies from GST.
In which feature of the Indian Ocean did India secure exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides under a contract announced on 20 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Carlsberg Ridge
The new 15-year ISA contract covers 10,000 sq km of the Carlsberg Ridge.
With which body did India's Ministry of Earth Sciences sign the contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: D — International Seabed Authority
The 15-year contract was signed between the Ministry of Earth Sciences and the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
What is the duration of India's new ISA contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: A — 15 years
The new contract runs for 15 years and covers 10,000 sq km.
Consider the following statements: 1. India is the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphide exploration. 2. India's other PMS contract covers the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: with the Carlsberg Ridge contract India became the first country with two ISA PMS contracts, the other covering the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge.
India was designated a 'Pioneer Investor' by virtue of being the first country to receive an area in international waters for exploration of:
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Correct answer: D — Polymetallic nodules
India was the first country to receive an area for polymetallic nodule exploration in international waters and was designated a "Pioneer Investor".
Under the US proclamation of 19 September 2025, what payment must accompany H-1B petitions for the restriction on entry not to apply?
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Correct answer: A — $100,000
The proclamation restricts entry of H-1B specialty-occupation workers except where petitions are accompanied or supplemented by a payment of $100,000.
For how long does the H-1B entry restriction in the US proclamation of September 2025 remain in force, absent extension?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
The restriction expires 12 months after its effective date of 21 September 2025, unless extended.
Which provisions of the US Immigration and Nationality Act did the H-1B proclamation of 19 September 2025 invoke?
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Correct answer: D — Sections 212(f) and 215(a)
The restriction on entry was imposed pursuant to sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the INA.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the US H-1B proclamation: 1. The MEA said the measure is likely to have humanitarian consequences by way of disruption caused for families. 2. The MEA said the full implications were being studied by all concerned, including Indian industry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the implications were being studied, including by Indian industry, and that the measure was likely to have humanitarian consequences for families.
Where will the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 be held?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The India-AI Impact Summit 2026 will be held on 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which three 'Sutras' guide the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet, Progress
The Summit is guided by the principles or Sutras of People, Planet and Progress.
Which emblem forms the core identity of the official logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
The logo's identity is the Ashoka Chakra, an emblem of ethical governance and constitutional values, with neural network flares radiating outward.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 announcements of 18 September 2025: 1. The Summit is the first to be hosted by a Global South nation. 2. Eight foundation model projects were launched under the IndiaAI Foundation Models pillar, selected from about 506 proposals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. MeitY said the Summit is being hosted for the first time by a Global South nation, and eight foundation model projects selected from about 506 proposals were launched.
After seven natural sites were added in September 2025, how many Indian properties are on UNESCO's Tentative List of World Heritage Sites?
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Correct answer: A — 69
The inclusion of seven natural sites raised India's count on the Tentative List from 62 to 69 properties.
Which cave serves as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age of the Holocene Epoch, as cited in the UNESCO Tentative List addition of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mawmluh Cave
The Meghalayan Age Caves, particularly Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch.
The Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam natural arch are features of which site added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tirumala Hills
Tirumala Hills in Andhra Pradesh feature the Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam (natural arch), representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth's history.
Consider the following pairs of sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025 and their states: 1. Naga Hill Ophiolite — Nagaland 2. Erra Matti Dibbalu — Kerala Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct. Naga Hill Ophiolite is in Nagaland, but Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills) is near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh; the Kerala site is Varkala Cliffs.
Consider the following statements about UNESCO's Tentative List as described in the Ministry of Culture release of 18 September 2025: 1. Inclusion in the Tentative List is a prerequisite for a site to be nominated to the World Heritage List. 2. After the September 2025 additions, cultural properties make up the largest share of India's Tentative List. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Under UNESCO's protocol, Tentative List inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, and India's 69 properties comprise 49 cultural, 17 natural and 3 mixed sites.
What was the theme of World Ozone Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — From science to global action
The theme for World Ozone Day 2025 was 'From science to global action', emphasising how scientific discovery can guide policy and international cooperation.
According to UNDP's Resident Representative at the 31st World Ozone Day event, what reduction target in HCFC production and consumption has India achieved?
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Correct answer: D — 67.5%
UNDP Resident Representative Angela Lusigi said India achieved the 67.5% reduction target in HCFC production and consumption and completely phased out HCFC-141b.
World Ozone Day on 16 September commemorates the signing of which international agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Montreal Protocol
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
Consider the following statements about the ozone treaties: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol were the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification. 2. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed in 2016, deals with the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. On 16 September 2009 the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification, and the Kigali Amendment agreed on 15 October 2016 provides for the phase-down of HFCs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985. 2. Under the Kigali Amendment, India's HFC phase-down is to be implemented from 2028 onwards. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Vienna Convention was adopted and signed on 22 March 1985, and MoEFCC noted that the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment is to be implemented from 2028 onwards.
Where was the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025, won by Vaishali Rameshbabu, held?
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Correct answer: D — Samarkand, Uzbekistan
The FIDE Grand Swiss and Women's Grand Swiss 2025 were held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, ending on 15 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about Vaishali Rameshbabu's win at the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025: 1. She became the first player to win the Grand Swiss twice in a row. 2. She finished in clear first place, a full point ahead of the rest of the field. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: FIDE said a second consecutive Grand Swiss win had never been achieved before in either section. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaishali and Kateryna Lagno both scored 8/11, and Vaishali took first place on tiebreak.
Apart from Vaishali Rameshbabu, which player qualified for the 2026 Women's Candidates Tournament from the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kateryna Lagno
Russia's Kateryna Lagno also scored 8/11 and, with Vaishali, took the two Candidates spots from the Women's Grand Swiss; Bibisara Assaubayeva finished third.
Which bench of the Supreme Court passed the interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 on 15 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih
The interim order of 15 September 2025 was passed by a bench of Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih.
Under the Supreme Court's interim directions on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of non-Muslim members allowed in the Central Waqf Council and in a State Waqf Board, respectively?
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Correct answer: A — 4 and 3
The Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members and a State Waqf Board not more than 3, recording the Solicitor General's statement to the same effect.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's interim order of 15 September 2025 on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. The Court stayed the operation of the entire Act until the petitions are finally decided. 2. The condition that a person must be practising Islam for at least five years to create a waqf was stayed until State Governments frame rules for a mechanism to determine it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court found no case to stay the entire statute. Statement 2 is correct: the five-year condition was stayed until State Governments frame rules, since without a mechanism it could lead to arbitrary exercise of power.
While staying the Collector's powers to decide disputes over waqf property under the amended Act, which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court say would be violated if the executive determined citizens' rights?
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Correct answer: D — Separation of powers
The Court said permitting the Collector to adjudicate the rights of citizens would violate the separation of powers, and stayed those provisions until the Waqf Tribunal decides.
India's second contract with the International Seabed Authority for polymetallic sulphides exploration, signed on 15 September 2025, covers an area in which feature of the Indian Ocean?
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Correct answer: C — Carlsberg Ridge
The 15-year contract gives India exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides in an allotted 10,000 sq km area of the Carlsberg Ridge.
Consider the following statements about India's PMS exploration contract with the ISA signed in September 2025: 1. India became the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphides exploration. 2. The contract is valid for 30 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is the first country with two ISA PMS contracts (the earlier, from 2016, covers the Central and Southwest Indian Ridges). Statement 2 is incorrect: the contract is for 15 years.
The International Seabed Authority, with which India signed its second PMS exploration contract, is based in which country?
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Correct answer: B — Jamaica
The International Seabed Authority, the UN body that regulates mineral exploration in international seabed areas, is based in Jamaica.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025, approved on 14 September 2025, replaces a manual that was last promulgated in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2009
The DPM, which regulates revenue procurement by the Defence Services, was last promulgated in 2009; the revised DPM 2025 was approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily governs which type of procurement by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: D — Revenue procurement of goods and services
The DPM lays down principles for all revenue procurements in the Ministry, valued at around ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
Consider the following statements about liquidated damages (LD) under the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. No LD will be levied during the development phase of a contract. 2. The maximum LD has been lowered to 5%, rising to 10% only in cases of inordinate delay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPM 2025 introduces no LD during the development phase and a minimal 0.1% LD after the prototype is developed; maximum LD is lowered to 5%, and only for inordinate delays can it reach 10%.
Under DPM 2025, for how long can the Ministry of Defence give assured orders (in terms of quantity) to suppliers who develop items?
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Correct answer: A — Up to five years, extendable by up to five more years in special circumstances
DPM 2025 provides an assured guarantee of orders in terms of quantity for up to five years and, in special circumstances, up to another five years.
Where were the World Boxing Championships 2025, at which Minakshi Hooda and Jaismine Lamboria won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Liverpool, United Kingdom
The World Boxing Championships 2025 were held in Liverpool, where Minakshi won the 48kg and Jaismine the 57kg title.
In which weight category did Jaismine Lamboria win gold at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57kg
Jaismine Lamboria won the women's 57kg title, beating Poland's Julia Szeremeta 4-1; Minakshi Hooda won the 48kg title.
Whom did Minakshi Hooda defeat in the women's 48kg final at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Nazym Kyzaibay of Kazakhstan
Minakshi beat Kazakhstan's Paris Olympics bronze medallist Nazym Kyzaibay 4-1 in the 48kg final; she had beaten Mongolia's Altantsetseg Lutsaikhan in the semi-final.
Consider the following statements about India's campaign at the World Boxing Championships 2025: 1. India won four medals, all of them in the women's section. 2. Nupur Sheoran won gold in the women's 80+kg category. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India won two golds (Minakshi, Jaismine), a silver and a bronze, all by women, while the men drew a blank. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nupur Sheoran won silver in the 80+kg after losing the final 3-2 to Poland's Agata Kaczmarska.
Who administered the oath of office to C.P. Radhakrishnan as Vice President of India on 12 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Droupadi Murmu
President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office of Vice President to C.P. Radhakrishnan at Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Which post did C.P. Radhakrishnan hold immediately before becoming Vice President of India?
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Correct answer: A — Governor of Maharashtra
Radhakrishnan was formerly the Governor of Maharashtra; he had earlier been Governor of Jharkhand with additional charge of Telangana and Puducherry.
From which Lok Sabha constituency was C.P. Radhakrishnan elected in 1998 and 1999?
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Correct answer: B — Coimbatore
Radhakrishnan was elected to the Lok Sabha for the first time from Coimbatore in 1998 and re-elected in 1999.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. C.P. Radhakrishnan is the 17th person to hold the office of Vice President of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Radhakrishnan took oath as the 15th Vice President and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; 'seventeenth' refers to the number of the Vice-Presidential election held in 2025, not to the office-holder.
In which Indian city did PM Modi hold talks with Mauritius PM Navinchandra Ramgoolam on 11 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
PM Modi welcomed PM Ramgoolam to his parliamentary constituency, Kashi (Varanasi), where the talks and joint press statement took place.
Which of the following is a grant project in India's special economic package for Mauritius announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — New Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam National Hospital
The new SSR National Hospital is among the grant projects (with an AYUSH Centre of Excellence, a veterinary school and helicopters); Motorway M4, the ATC tower and Ring Road Phase II are grant-cum-LoC projects.
India agreed in principle to assist Mauritius in developing and surveilling which area, as part of the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: A — Chagos Marine Protected Area
On the strategic side, the two sides agreed in principle on redevelopment of a port in Mauritius and assistance in development and surveillance of the Chagos Marine Protected Area.
How much budgetary assistance did India agree in principle to extend to Mauritius in the current financial year (2025-26)?
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Correct answer: D — USD 25 million
India agreed in principle to extend budgetary assistance of USD 25 million in the current financial year.
Consider the following outcomes of the Mauritius PM's state visit to India in September 2025: 1. An agreement was signed to establish a telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station for satellites and launch vehicles. 2. NTPC will work towards a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the list of outcomes includes the space telemetry, tracking and telecommunication station agreement and an announcement to take forward a 17.5 MW floating solar PV project at Tamarind Falls, with an NTPC team to finalise an agreement with CEB.
Which Prime Minister of Nepal resigned on 9 September 2025 following youth-led 'Gen Z' protests?
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Correct answer: C — K.P. Sharma Oli
K.P. Sharma Oli resigned on 9 September 2025 after protests sparked by a social media ban turned deadly.
Which body did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 9 September 2025 to discuss the developments in Nepal?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
On his return from Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, the PM chaired a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security to discuss the developments in Nepal.
What immediately triggered the 'Gen Z' protests in Nepal that led to the Prime Minister's resignation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A ban on social media platforms
Reuters and AP reported that the outrage was sparked by a ban on social media platforms, alongside anger over corruption.
Consider the following statements about the Nepal crisis of September 2025: 1. The Nepal government kept the social media ban in force even after 19 people were killed on 8 September. 2. Sushila Karki became interim Prime Minister on the same day that K.P. Sharma Oli resigned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the government lifted the ban after 19 people were killed on 8 September, and Oli resigned on 9 September while Karki was sworn in on 12 September.
How many votes did C.P. Radhakrishnan secure in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 452
Returning Officer P.C. Mody declared Radhakrishnan elected with 452 first-preference votes; B. Sudershan Reddy received 300.
Who was the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential election of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
The ECI said the Returning Officer was the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; P.C. Mody announced the result.
Out of 781 eligible electors in the Vice-Presidential election of September 2025, how many cast their votes?
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Correct answer: B — 767
The ECI said 767 of the 781 eligible electors voted and 15 ballot papers were declared invalid, leaving 752 valid votes.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election of 2025: 1. With 15 ballots declared invalid, the majority of first-preference votes required to win was 377. 2. The certificate of election was signed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners on 9 September 2025, the day of the poll. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. With 752 valid votes the required majority was 377, but the ECI said the certificate of election was signed on 10 September 2025, the day after the poll.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Congress, at which India launched the UPI–UPU Integration project, held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled the UPI–UPU Integration project at the 28th Universal Postal Congress in Dubai, UAE.
The UPI–UPU Integration project links India's UPI with which UPU system?
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Correct answer: B — UPU Interconnection Platform (IP)
The project integrates India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with the UPU Interconnection Platform (IP), combining the postal network's reach with UPI's speed and affordability.
How much financial support did India commit to the global postal sector during this UPU cycle, as announced at the Dubai Congress?
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Correct answer: C — USD 10 million
Scindia announced India's commitment of 10 million dollars during this cycle to channel technology into innovation, with special focus on e-commerce and digital payments.
Consider the following statements about the UPI–UPU Integration project: 1. It was developed jointly by the Department of Posts, NPCI International Payments Limited and the Universal Postal Union. 2. At the Congress, India announced its candidature for the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the project was developed by the Department of Posts, NIPL and the UPU, and Scindia announced India's candidature for the Council of Administration and the Postal Operations Council.
Who signed the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement on behalf of Israel in New Delhi on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bezalel Smotrich
Israel's Finance Minister Bezalel Smotrich signed the BIA with Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
According to the Government of India, what is the present level of bilateral investment between India and Israel, cited at the signing of the BIA in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About USD 800 million
The release said bilateral investments presently stand at a total of USD 800 million.
Consider the following statements about the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement signed in September 2025: 1. It provides an independent dispute resolution mechanism through arbitration. 2. It removes the host State's right to regulate in the public interest in favour of investor protection. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The BIA provides arbitration-based dispute resolution, but the government said it balances investor protection with the State's regulatory rights, preserving policy space. So only statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following was NOT listed as an area of cooperation committed to by the Finance Ministers of India and Israel at the BIA signing in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Joint space exploration
The ministers committed to cooperation in fintech innovation, infrastructure development, financial regulation and digital payment connectivity; space exploration was not listed.
Which country's Prime Minister, Shigeru Ishiba, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Shigeru Ishiba, Prime Minister of Japan, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025.
Shigeru Ishiba resigned as president of which party in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Liberal Democratic Party
Ishiba said he was stepping down as prime minister and as head of the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP).
Before announcing his resignation in September 2025, Japan's PM Shigeru Ishiba said he had waited for the conclusion of which negotiations?
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Correct answer: A — Negotiations on US tariff measures
Ishiba said he waited until negotiations on US tariff measures reached a conclusion before stepping aside.
Consider the following statements about Shigeru Ishiba's resignation announced on 7 September 2025: 1. It followed his party's historic defeat in the July 2025 upper house election. 2. Ishiba said he would continue his duties until a successor was chosen. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Reuters, AP and the BBC reported that Ishiba faced pressure after the July 2025 election defeat and said he would continue his duties until a successor was selected. Both statements are correct.
President Emmanuel Macron accepted India's invitation to which summit, to be hosted by India in February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — AI Impact Summit
PM Modi thanked President Macron for accepting the invitation to the AI Impact Summit hosted by India in February 2026.
Which roadmap guiding the India–France Strategic Partnership was mentioned in the Modi–Macron call of 6 September 2025, along with the Indo-Pacific and Defence Industrial Roadmaps?
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Correct answer: C — Horizon 2047 Roadmap
The leaders reaffirmed commitment in line with the Horizon 2047 Roadmap, the Indo-Pacific Roadmap and the Defence Industrial Roadmap.
Which conflict did PM Modi and President Macron discuss during their call on 6 September 2025, with India reiterating support for a peaceful resolution?
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Correct answer: A — The conflict in Ukraine
The leaders exchanged views on recent efforts to end the conflict in Ukraine.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Macron telephone call of 6 September 2025: 1. The leaders reviewed cooperation in sectors including defence, science, technology and space. 2. The leaders announced a new India–France free trade agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PIB release says the leaders assessed cooperation across economic, defence, science, technology and space sectors; it does not mention any free trade agreement. So only statement 1 is correct.
Who was elected Prime Minister of Thailand by the House of Representatives on 5 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Anutin Charnvirakul
Bhumjaithai leader Anutin Charnvirakul won 311 votes to become Prime Minister.
Anutin Charnvirakul, elected Thailand's Prime Minister in September 2025, leads which party?
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Correct answer: B — Bhumjaithai Party
Anutin is the leader of the Bhumjaithai Party; his rival Chaikasem Nitisiri was Pheu Thai's candidate.
Anutin Charnvirakul succeeded which Thai Prime Minister, who had been dismissed by court order?
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Correct answer: A — Paetongtarn Shinawatra
AP reported Anutin succeeds Paetongtarn Shinawatra, dismissed as prime minister by court order the previous week.
Consider the following statements about Thailand's prime ministerial vote of 5 September 2025: 1. Anutin Charnvirakul won 311 votes against a majority threshold of 247. 2. Anutin was formally appointed by parliament itself, with no role for the King. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Anutin won 311 votes, above the 247 needed. AP reported he would take office after formal appointment by King Maha Vajiralongkorn, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which institution topped the Overall category of the NIRF India Rankings 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras retained first position in the Overall category for the seventh consecutive year (2019–2025).
Which institution topped the Universities category in NIRF India Rankings 2025 for the tenth consecutive year?
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Correct answer: A — IISc Bengaluru
IISc Bengaluru topped the Universities category for the tenth consecutive year (2016–2025).
Which new category was introduced in the NIRF India Rankings in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sustainable Development Goals
The Sustainable Development Goals category was added in 2025; Open and Skill Universities were added in 2024 and Innovation in 2023.
Consider the following statements about the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): 1. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Education in September 2015. 2. In the 2025 rankings, IIT Madras was first in Engineering for the tenth consecutive year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
NIRF was launched in September 2015, the first rankings came out in 2016, and IIT Madras has topped Engineering every year from 2016 to 2025. Both statements are correct.
Which Singaporean Prime Minister paid an official visit to India from 2 to 4 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lawrence Wong
Prime Minister Lawrence Wong paid an official visit to India from 2 to 4 September 2025.
Under the India–Singapore CSP roadmap of September 2025, a National Centre of Excellence on Advanced Manufacturing is to be jointly developed in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai
The two sides will jointly develop a National Centre of Excellence in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, on Advanced Manufacturing.
India–Singapore relations were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership during which visit?
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Correct answer: A — PM Modi's visit to Singapore in September 2024
The leaders recalled the agreement to elevate ties to a CSP during PM Modi's official visit to Singapore in September 2024.
Consider the following statements about the India–Singapore Joint Statement of 4 September 2025: 1. 2025 marks the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations between the two countries. 2. The two sides agreed to work towards a cooperation framework under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Joint Statement notes the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and commits to work towards a bilateral cooperation framework under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement. Both statements are correct.
What is the outlay of the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved by the Union Cabinet on 3 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,500 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme to develop critical mineral recycling capacity.
The critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved in September 2025 is part of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — National Critical Mineral Mission
The scheme is part of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), aimed at domestic capacity and supply chain resilience in critical minerals.
What share of the critical mineral recycling scheme's outlay is earmarked for small and new recyclers, including start-ups?
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Correct answer: D — One-third
One-third of the scheme outlay has been earmarked for small, new recyclers including start-ups.
Consider the following statements about the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved in September 2025: 1. Units engaged only in black mass production are eligible for incentives. 2. The total incentive per large entity is capped at ₹50 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The scheme covers only the value chain involved in actual extraction of critical minerals, not black mass production alone, so statement 1 is wrong. Total incentive is capped at ₹50 crore for large entities and ₹25 crore for small ones.
Under the two-rate GST structure approved by the 56th GST Council, what are the standard rate and the merit rate?
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Correct answer: B — 18% and 5%
The Council rationalised the four-tier structure into a two-rate 'Simple Tax' with a standard rate of 18% and a merit rate of 5%.
What special de-merit rate did the 56th GST Council approve for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: D — 40%
Alongside the 18% and 5% rates, the Council approved a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
From which date did the GST rate changes on services recommended by the 56th GST Council take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 22 September 2025
The changes in GST rates on services, and on all goods except pan masala, gutkha, cigarettes and other tobacco products, were to be implemented from 22 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the decisions of the 56th GST Council: 1. All individual life and health insurance policies were exempted from GST. 2. GST on small cars and motorcycles of up to 350cc was reduced from 28% to 18%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Council exempted all individual life insurance (term, ULIP, endowment) and individual health insurance policies, and cut GST on small cars and motorcycles up to 350cc from 28% to 18%.
To correct the inverted duty structure in the manmade textile sector, the 56th GST Council reduced GST on manmade fibre from 18% to:
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Correct answer: B — 5%
The Council corrected the long-pending inverted duty structure by reducing GST on manmade fibre from 18% to 5% and on manmade yarn from 12% to 5%.
In which Chinese city did PM Modi meet President Putin on 1 September 2025 on the sidelines of the SCO Summit?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
PM Modi met President Putin on the sidelines of the SCO Summit in Tianjin, China.
At their Tianjin meeting in September 2025, PM Modi said he looked forward to receiving President Putin in India for which India–Russia Annual Summit?
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Correct answer: D — 23rd
PM Modi conveyed that he looked forward to receiving President Putin in India for the 23rd Annual Summit later in the year.
How is the India–Russia partnership described in the PIB readout of the Modi–Putin meeting of 1 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The leaders reaffirmed support for strengthening the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between the two countries.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Putin meeting of 1 September 2025: 1. The leaders discussed cooperation in the economic, financial and energy sectors. 2. PM Modi stressed the need to expedite a cessation of the conflict in Ukraine and find a durable peace settlement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The PIB readout says the leaders discussed economic, financial and energy cooperation, and that the PM emphasised expediting a cessation of the Ukraine conflict and a durable peace settlement. Both are correct.
In which Chinese city was the 25th SCO Council of Heads of State held from 31 August to 1 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
The 25th Meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of State was held in Tianjin, China, from 31 August to 1 September 2025.
At the Tianjin summit, the PM said India's SCO policy rests on three pillars spelling S-C-O. What are they?
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Correct answer: A — Security, Connectivity, Opportunity
The PM said India's vision and policy towards the SCO are built on three pillars: S – Security, C – Connectivity and O – Opportunity.
Which country took over the next presidency of the SCO after the Tianjin summit of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kyrgyzstan
The PM congratulated Kyrgyzstan on taking over the next presidency of the SCO.
What new platform did PM Modi propose within the SCO at the Tianjin summit to foster people-to-people ties?
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Correct answer: B — Civilizational Dialogue Forum
The PM proposed commencing a Civilizational Dialogue Forum within the SCO to foster greater people-to-people ties and cultural understanding.
Consider the following statements about the SCO Tianjin Declaration of 1 September 2025: 1. It strongly condemned the terrorist attack in Pahalgam on 22 April 2025. 2. India did not join the Tianjin Declaration because of differences on terrorism. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Tianjin Declaration was adopted by all members including India and Pakistan, and it said perpetrators, organisers and sponsors of such attacks must be brought to justice.
Where did PM Modi hold a bilateral meeting with President Xi Jinping on 31 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
The meeting took place on the sidelines of the SCO Summit in Tianjin.
Before the Tianjin meeting of 31 August 2025, PM Modi and President Xi had last met in:
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Correct answer: B — Kazan, October 2024
The PIB readout says the leaders welcomed progress since their last meeting in Kazan in October 2024.
At the Tianjin meeting, PM Modi invited President Xi Jinping to which summit to be hosted by India in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — BRICS Summit
The Prime Minister invited President Xi to the BRICS Summit that India will host in 2026; Xi offered support to India's BRICS Presidency.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Xi meeting of 31 August 2025: 1. The leaders said India and China are development partners and not rivals. 2. The Prime Minister said India–China relations should be seen through the lens of their ties with third countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Prime Minister said the relationship should NOT be seen through a third-country lens, as both pursue strategic autonomy.
In his Tianjin remarks of 31 August 2025, PM Modi said the cooperation between India and China is linked to the interests of how many people of the two nations?
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Correct answer: B — 2.8 billion
Both the readout and the Prime Minister's remarks refer to the 2.8 billion people of the two countries.
On 30 August 2025, PM Modi and Japanese PM Shigeru Ishiba visited a semiconductor facility in Sendai. Sendai lies in which Prefecture?
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Correct answer: B — Miyagi
The PIB release says the two leaders travelled to Sendai in Miyagi Prefecture.
Which semiconductor company's facility did the two Prime Ministers visit in Sendai on 30 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tokyo Electron Miyagi Ltd
They visited Tokyo Electron Miyagi Ltd (TEL Miyagi), a leading Japanese company in the semiconductor sector.
How many Governors of Japanese Prefectures took part in PM Modi's interaction on 30 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16
The release says sixteen Governors participated in the interaction.
PM Modi urged Japanese Governors to use which initiative, launched at the 15th India–Japan Annual Summit, to deepen sub-national ties?
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Correct answer: B — State-Prefecture Partnership Initiative
He underlined the State-Prefecture Partnership Initiative launched at the 15th Annual Summit to boost trade, technology, tourism, skills, security and cultural links.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's visit to Japan in August 2025: 1. It was an Official Working Visit on 29–30 August 2025 for the 15th Annual Summit. 2. The Sendai visit built on a Memorandum of Cooperation on the Japan–India Semiconductor Supply Chain Partnership. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Joint Statement describes an Official Working Visit on 29–30 August 2025 for the 15th Annual Summit, and the PIB release says cooperation builds on the MoC on the Japan–India Semiconductor Supply Chain Partnership.
According to NSO estimates released on 29 August 2025, India's real GDP growth in Q1 (April–June) of FY 2025-26 was:
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
Real GDP grew 7.8% in Q1 FY 2025-26, against 6.5% in Q1 FY 2024-25; 8.8% was nominal GDP growth.
Which sector registered a contraction in real GVA in Q1 of FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — Mining & Quarrying
Mining & Quarrying contracted 3.1%; utilities grew only 0.5%, while agriculture grew 3.7% and construction 7.6%.
The Q1 FY 2025-26 GDP estimates were released by:
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Correct answer: D — National Statistics Office, MoSPI
The quarterly estimates were released by the National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Consider the following statements about the Q1 FY 2025-26 GDP estimates: 1. The tertiary sector grew faster than manufacturing during the quarter. 2. Real private final consumption expenditure growth was higher than in Q1 of FY 2024-25. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: tertiary 9.3% vs manufacturing 7.7%. Statement 2 is wrong: real PFCE grew 7.0%, lower than 8.3% in Q1 FY 2024-25.