Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
NMDC formally entered coal mining in January 2026 with which mine?
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Correct answer: A — Tokisud North, Hazaribagh
PIB (Steel): NMDC commenced coal mining operations at the Tokisud North Coal Mine in Hazaribagh district, Jharkhand, on 23 January 2026.
The Tokisud North Coal Mine, where NMDC began operations in January 2026, is in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Jharkhand
PIB (Steel): the mine is in Hazaribagh district, Jharkhand.
How much equity support to SIDBI did the Union Cabinet approve on 21 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹5,000 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved equity support of ₹5,000 crore to SIDBI.
Consider the following statements about the SIDBI equity infusion approved in January 2026: 1. ₹3,000 crore will be infused in FY 2025-26. 2. The infusion will be made by the Department of Financial Services. 3. The number of MSMEs assisted is expected to reach 102 lakh by the end of FY 2028. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): DFS will infuse ₹3,000 crore in FY 2025-26 and ₹1,000 crore each in the next two years; MSMEs assisted are expected to rise from 76.26 lakh to 102 lakh by end-FY 2028. All three are correct.
The SIDBI capital infusion is primarily meant to help the bank maintain a healthy level of which ratio as its risk-weighted assets grow?
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Correct answer: A — Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio
PIB (Cabinet): rising risk-weighted assets from directed credit, collateral-free digital products and venture debt require more capital to sustain a healthy CRAR.
Where was the 9th meeting of the India–Myanmar Joint Trade Committee held on 21 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Nay Pyi Taw
PIB (Commerce): the 9th JTC was held in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar.
What bilateral trade target by 2030 did India and Myanmar set at the 9th Joint Trade Committee?
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Correct answer: A — USD 5 billion
PIB (Commerce): trade stands at USD 2.15 billion and both sides aim for USD 5 billion by 2030.
How many scientific projects did the Geological Survey of India place before the 65th CGPB meeting for Field Season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — 1,068
PIB (Mines): GSI's Annual Programme for Field Season 2026-27 comprises 1,068 scientific projects.
Consider the following statements about GSI's Field Season 2026-27 programme: 1. It includes 236 projects on critical mineral exploration. 2. G3-stage exploration projects have increased by about 46%. 3. The CGPB meeting that reviewed it was chaired by the Director General of GSI. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Mines): there are 236 critical-mineral projects and G3-stage projects rise about 46%; the meeting was chaired by Mines Secretary Piyush Goyal as CGPB Chairman, not by the GSI DG.
How much Fifteenth Finance Commission grant was released to rural local bodies in Gujarat, as announced on 21 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹512.27 crore
PIB (Panchayati Raj): ₹512.27 crore was released for Gujarat's rural local bodies for FY 2025-26.
Untied Grants to Panchayati Raj Institutions may be used for location-specific needs under the subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Eleventh Schedule
PIB (Panchayati Raj): Untied Grants are used under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies: 1. They are released in two instalments in a financial year. 2. Untied Grants can be used to pay salaries of panchayat staff. 3. The Ministry of Finance releases the grants on the recommendation of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Panchayati Raj): grants are released in two instalments a year by the Finance Ministry on MoPR/DDWS recommendation; Untied Grants cannot be used for salaries and establishment costs.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in December 2025 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: C — 3.7%
PIB (Commerce): the ICI increased by 3.7% (provisional) in December 2025 over December 2024.
The eight core industries together account for what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27%
PIB (Commerce): the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items in the IIP.
Which of the following core industries recorded a decline in production in December 2025 compared with December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Crude oil
PIB (Commerce): crude oil fell 5.6% (and natural gas 4.4%), while cement, steel, electricity, fertilizers and coal grew.
In January 2026, the CCI approved the acquisition of a stake in which Indian bank by Emirates NBD?
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Correct answer: C — RBL Bank
PIB (CCI): the Commission approved Emirates NBD Bank's proposed acquisition of shareholding in RBL Bank Limited.
What range of shareholding in RBL Bank does Emirates NBD propose to acquire, as approved by the CCI?
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Correct answer: B — Not less than 51%, up to 74%
PIB (CCI): the combination envisages acquisition of up to 74% (and not less than 51%) of RBL Bank.
How many ATMs did the Department of Posts activate at post offices across India, as announced in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 887
PIB (Communications): the Department of Posts revamped its ATM infrastructure with the activation of 887 ATMs across India.
Where did APEDA organise an Organic Conclave-cum-Buyer Seller Meet with the Assam government in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Guwahati
PIB (Commerce): APEDA organised the Organic Conclave-cum-Buyer Seller Meet at Guwahati.
A session at APEDA's Guwahati organic conclave covered which edition of the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
PIB (Commerce): the conclave featured a sensitisation session on NPOP 8th Edition, including the regulatory framework and labelling requirements.
During the UAE President's visit in January 2026, India and the UAE set what bilateral trade target for 2032?
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Correct answer: D — US$200 billion
PIB (PMO): bilateral trade reached US$100 billion in FY 2024-25, and the leaders decided to double it to US$200 billion by 2032.
Under the agreement signed during the UAE President's January 2026 visit, HPCL will buy LNG from ADNOC Gas on what terms?
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Correct answer: A — 0.5 MMTPA for 10 years from 2028
PIB (PMO, list of outcomes): the long-term agreement provides for purchase of 0.5 MMTPA LNG by HPCL from ADNOC Gas over 10 years starting 2028.
A Letter of Intent signed during the UAE President's January 2026 visit covers UAE partnership in developing which Special Investment Region?
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Correct answer: A — Dholera, Gujarat
PIB (PMO): the LoI between the Government of Gujarat and the UAE Ministry of Investment is for development of the Dholera Special Investment Region.
Consider the following statements about the UAE President's visit to India on 19 January 2026: 1. It was his fifth visit to India in the last ten years. 2. C-DAC and the UAE's G42 agreed in principle to set up a supercomputing cluster in India. 3. India and the UAE signed their Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement during this visit. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): it was his fifth visit in ten years, and C-DAC–G42 agreed in principle on a supercomputing cluster; the CEPA was signed in 2022, not during this visit.
Which Indian agency signed a Letter of Intent with the UAE Space Agency during the UAE President's January 2026 visit?
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Correct answer: D — IN-SPACe
PIB (PMO, list of outcomes): the LoI on space industry development and commercial collaboration was between IN-SPACe and the UAE Space Agency.
Between 1 April and 31 December 2025, public sector banks sanctioned MSME loans worth more than how much under their digital Credit Assessment Model?
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Correct answer: C — ₹52,300 crore
PIB (Finance): over 3.96 lakh MSME loan applications amounting to more than ₹52,300 crore were sanctioned.
The public sector banks' Credit Assessment Model for MSMEs is primarily based on:
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Correct answer: D — Digital footprints such as GST, bank statement and ITR data
PIB (Finance): the CAM uses digital footprints — KYC, GST data, account aggregator bank statements, ITR verification and CIC data — for automated appraisal.
What combined Profit After Tax did India's power distribution utilities record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — Profit of ₹2,701 crore
PIB (Power): distribution utilities recorded a positive PAT of ₹2,701 crore in FY 2024-25.
What was the combined loss of India's power distribution utilities in FY 2013-14, as cited by the Power Ministry in January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹67,962 crore
PIB (Power): the utilities lost ₹67,962 crore in FY 2013-14 and ₹25,553 crore in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about power distribution utilities' finances as reported in January 2026: 1. They returned a positive PAT in FY 2024-25 after several years of losses. 2. Their loss in FY 2023-24 was ₹25,553 crore. 3. The Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme was cited as one of the reforms behind the turnaround. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Power): PAT turned positive at ₹2,701 crore in FY 2024-25 after years of losses, the FY 2023-24 loss was ₹25,553 crore, and RDSS is listed among the transformative initiatives.
According to the PM's address on National Startup Day 2026, where does India rank among the world's startup ecosystems?
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Correct answer: D — Third
PIB (PMO): the PM said India is today the world's third-largest startup ecosystem.
How many startups does India have now, according to the PM at the Startup India decade programme?
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Correct answer: D — More than 2 lakh
PIB (PMO): fewer than 500 startups ten years ago have grown to more than 2 lakh today.
According to the PM, India had only four unicorns in 2014. About how many active unicorns does it have now?
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Correct answer: C — 125
PIB (PMO): India had only four unicorns in 2014; today there are nearly 125 active unicorns.
Where was the programme marking a decade of Startup India held on 16 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam
PIB (PMO): the programme was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
With effect from 15 January 2026, CBIC extended which export benefits to exports made through the postal mode in electronic form?
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Correct answer: A — Duty Drawback, RoDTEP and RoSCTL
PIB (Finance): CBIC extended Duty Drawback, RoDTEP and RoSCTL benefits to postal exports in electronic form from 15 January 2026.
To let postal exporters claim Drawback, RoDTEP and RoSCTL benefits, CBIC amended which regulations in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Postal Export (Electronic Declaration and Processing) Regulations, 2022
PIB (Finance): CBIC approved amendments to the Postal Export (Electronic Declaration and Processing) Regulations, 2022 via Notification No. 07/2026–Customs (N.T.).
According to the PLFS Monthly Bulletin for December 2025, what was the female labour force participation rate (age 15+)?
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Correct answer: C — 35.3%
PIB (MoSPI): female LFPR (15+) stood at 35.3% in December 2025, the highest of the year. 38.6% is rural female WPR.
What was India's overall unemployment rate (age 15+) in December 2025 as per the PLFS Monthly Bulletin?
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Correct answer: B — 4.8%
PIB (MoSPI): the unemployment rate was 4.8% in December 2025, compared with 4.7% in November 2025. 9.1% is urban female unemployment.
PLFS monthly estimates of LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate at the all-India level are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: A — Current Weekly Status (CWS)
PIB (MoSPI): the Monthly Bulletins present LFPR, WPR and UR following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
Which body released the report 'Achieving Efficiencies in MSME Sector through Convergence of Schemes' in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — NITI Aayog
PIB (NITI Aayog): NITI Aayog released the report on 15 January 2026.
According to NITI Aayog's MSME convergence report, how many schemes does the Ministry of MSME currently administer?
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Correct answer: C — 18
PIB (NITI Aayog): the Ministry of MSME currently administers 18 schemes.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) for April–December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — US$634.26 billion
PIB (Commerce): total exports for April–December 2025 are estimated at US$634.26 billion, against US$607.93 billion in April–December 2024. US$330.29 billion is merchandise alone.
By how much did India's merchandise exports grow in April–December 2025 compared with April–December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 2.44%
PIB (Commerce): merchandise exports grew 2.44% to US$330.29 billion. 4.33% is total exports and 5.51% is non-petroleum exports.
Which merchandise export category grew by 16.78% in December 2025, to US$4.17 billion?
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Correct answer: C — Electronic goods
PIB (Commerce): electronic goods exports rose 16.78% from US$3.57 billion in December 2024 to US$4.17 billion in December 2025.
The Export Preparedness Index 2024, released in January 2026, is which edition of the index?
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Correct answer: D — Fourth
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first edition of the EPI was published in August 2020 and EPI 2024 is the 4th edition.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Research & Innovation
PIB (NITI Aayog): the four pillars are Export Infrastructure, Business Ecosystem, Policy & Governance and Export Performance.
Which of the following was NOT listed among the leading performers in the 'Large States' category of the Export Preparedness Index 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (NITI Aayog): the leading large states were Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. Karnataka was not in the list.
Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima, launched by the Department of Financial Services in January 2026, is available exclusively to which group?
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Correct answer: B — CGHS beneficiaries
PIB (Finance): the policy is exclusively available to CGHS beneficiaries, with up to six members per policy.
Under Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima, up to what share of the sum insured is covered for AYUSH in-patient treatment?
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Correct answer: D — 100%
PIB (Finance): AYUSH treatments are covered up to 100% of the sum insured; modern treatment is covered up to 25%.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 0.83%
PIB (Commerce): WPI inflation was 0.83% (provisional) in December 2025. −0.32% was November; 1.82% is manufactured products.
Which major group carries the highest weight (64.23%) in India's Wholesale Price Index (base 2011-12)?
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Correct answer: C — Manufactured Products
PIB (Commerce): Manufactured Products have a weight of 64.23%, Primary Articles 22.62% and Fuel & Power 13.15%.
What is the minimum initial and annual contribution under NPS Vatsalya, as per the guidelines issued in January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹250
PIB (Finance): the minimum initial and annual contribution is ₹250, with no maximum limit.
Consider the following statements about NPS Vatsalya: 1. It is open to NRIs and OCIs below 18 years of age. 2. Partial withdrawal is allowed after three years, up to 25% of own contributions. 3. There is a maximum annual contribution limit of ₹1.5 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Finance): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no maximum limit on contribution.
On which date was NPS Vatsalya launched by the Union Finance Minister?
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Correct answer: C — 18 September 2024
PIB (Finance): NPS Vatsalya was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 and launched on 18 September 2024.
Who chairs the PFRDA committee constituted in January 2026 to develop a framework for assured payouts under NPS?
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Correct answer: A — Dr M.S. Sahoo
PIB (Finance): the committee is chaired by Dr M.S. Sahoo, former Chairperson of the IBBI.
How many members are on the PFRDA committee on assured payouts under NPS, constituted in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 15
PIB (Finance): it is a 15-member panel of experts.
Which framework has traditionally been used to compile India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: D — Fixed-base Laspeyres framework
PIB (MoSPI): the IIP has traditionally been compiled using a fixed-base Laspeyres framework.
What is the main advantage of the chain-based IIP proposed in MoSPI's Discussion Paper 2.0 (January 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — It updates weights annually to reflect the current production structure
PIB (MoSPI): the chain-based method allows weights to change annually, correctly reflecting a more recent production structure.
What was India's year-on-year CPI (headline) inflation for December 2025, as released by MoSPI on 12 January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1.33%
PIB (MoSPI): headline CPI inflation for December 2025 was 1.33% (provisional), 62 basis points higher than November 2025.
What was the all-India food inflation (CFPI) for December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — −2.71%
PIB (MoSPI): CFPI inflation for December 2025 was −2.71% (provisional); rural −3.08% and urban −2.09%.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for December 2025: 1. Headline inflation stayed below the RBI's lower tolerance limit for the fourth consecutive month. 2. Food inflation was negative for the seventh consecutive month. 3. Headline inflation fell compared with November 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: headline inflation rose by 62 basis points over November 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's inflation target, relevant to the December 2025 CPI data: 1. The Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934. 2. The target is 4% CPI inflation with a lower tolerance limit of 2% and an upper tolerance limit of 6%. 3. The six-member Monetary Policy Committee is constituted under Section 45ZA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
RBI (Monetary Policy overview): the target is set under Section 45ZA, at 4% CPI with 2% and 6% tolerance limits, retained for April 2021 to March 2026. Statement 3 is wrong: the MPC is constituted under Section 45ZB.
At which Integrated Check Post was the ICEGATE–LPMS integration inaugurated by CBIC on 12 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ICP Agartala
PIB (Finance): the ICEGATE–LPMS integration was inaugurated at ICP Agartala, Tripura.
In ICEGATE–LPMS, launched at ICP Agartala in January 2026, what does 'LPMS' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Land Port Management System
PIB (Finance): ICEGATE–LPMS is the Indian Customs Electronic Gateway–Land Port Management System integration.
During which event was APEDA's Regional Office in Raipur inaugurated in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 2nd India International Rice Summit
PIB (Commerce): the APEDA Regional Office was inaugurated at Raipur during the 2nd India International Rice Summit held in Chhattisgarh.
Jeeraphool Rice and Nagri Dubraj Rice, cited by APEDA as GI-tagged export products in January 2026, belong to which state?
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Correct answer: D — Chhattisgarh
PIB (Commerce): the release lists Jeeraphool Rice and Nagri Dubraj Rice among Chhattisgarh's GI-tagged products.
In which city did PM Modi inaugurate the Vibrant Gujarat Regional Conference for the Kutch and Saurashtra region on 11 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rajkot
PIB (PMO): the PM inaugurated the conference in Rajkot, Gujarat.
In which year was the first Vibrant Gujarat Summit held, as recalled at the Rajkot regional conference in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 2003
PIB (PMO): Welspun Chairman B.K. Goenka recalled the first Vibrant Gujarat Summit in 2003.
How many editions of the Vibrant Gujarat Summit had been held, according to PM Modi's address in Rajkot in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ten
PIB (PMO): the PM said ten editions have been held so far in two decades.
How much new non-fossil capacity did India add in 2025, according to MNRE (January 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 49.12 GW
PIB (MNRE): 49.12 GW of new non-fossil capacity was added in 2025.
What was India's installed solar capacity at the end of 2025, as reported by MNRE?
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Correct answer: C — 135.81 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar capacity rose from 97.86 GW in 2024 to 135.81 GW in 2025.
Consider the following statements based on MNRE data released in January 2026: 1. India's non-fossil installed capacity grew by 22.6% in 2025 to 266.78 GW. 2. Wind capacity grew faster than solar capacity in 2025. 3. India's national target is 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (MNRE): statements 1 and 3 are correct; solar grew 38.8% while wind grew only 13.2%, so statement 2 is wrong.
With whom did Piyush Goyal hold India–EU FTA talks in Brussels on 8–9 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Maroš Šefčovič
PIB (Commerce): Goyal held talks with Maroš Šefčovič, EU Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.
Consider the following statements about the India–EU FTA engagement in January 2026: 1. Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal met the European Commission's Director-General for Trade, Sabine Weyand, on 6–7 January. 2. The talks were held in Geneva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Commerce): Rajesh Agrawal and Sabine Weyand met on 6–7 January; the talks were held in Brussels, not Geneva.
Where was the Rashtriya Khanij Chintan Shivir 2026 of the Ministry of Mines held?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhinagar
PIB (Mines): the two-day Rashtriya Khanij Chintan Shivir 2026 was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
At the Rashtriya Khanij Chintan Shivir 2026, the Indian Bureau of Mines made a presentation on recovering critical minerals from which source?
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Correct answer: B — Waste dumps and tailings
PIB (Mines): IBM Controller General Pankaj Kulshrestha presented on recovery of critical minerals from waste dumps and tailings.