Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) in April–August 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — US$ 399.27 billion
Total exports were estimated at US$ 399.27 billion, up 15.55%. US$ 215.91 billion is merchandise only; US$ 459.65 billion is total imports.
Which merchandise export category grew the fastest in August 2026, by 89.82%?
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Correct answer: A — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports rose 89.82% from US$ 2.93 billion to US$ 5.55 billion.
What were India's merchandise exports in August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 43.81 billion
Merchandise exports were US$ 43.81 billion in August 2026; US$ 82.68 billion is total (goods + services) exports.
How much penalty did the CCPA impose on Rapido in September 2026 for misleading tipping prompts?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh
The CCPA imposed a ₹10 lakh penalty on Roppen Transportation Services, which runs Rapido.
Which two dark patterns did the CCPA find in Rapido's ride-booking interface?
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Correct answer: D — Confirm Shaming and Interface Interference
The CCPA held that Rapido's prompts amounted to Confirm Shaming and Interface Interference.
Consider the following about the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023: 1. They list 13 specified dark patterns. 2. They were issued by the CCPA under Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CCPA issued the guidelines on 30 November 2023 under Section 18, listing 13 dark patterns.
What was India's year-on-year retail inflation (CPI, provisional) for August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 4.82%
All-India CPI inflation for August 2026 was 4.82% (provisional), up from 4.45% in July.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the August 2026 inflation data?
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Correct answer: B — 2024=100
The CPI is now compiled on base year 2024=100.
What was food inflation measured by the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) in August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5.95%
CFPI inflation was 5.95% in August 2026 (rural 6.13%, urban 5.64%), against 5.52% in July.
Consider the following about the CPI release for August 2026: 1. Urban inflation was higher than rural inflation. 2. The CPI for August 2026 is compiled on base year 2012=100. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Rural inflation (5.23%) was higher than urban (4.31%), and the CPI released by the NSO, MoSPI, is now compiled on base year 2024=100.
What does the First Additional Protocol to the India–MERCOSUR PTA, signed on 14 September 2026, provide for?
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Correct answer: C — Acceptance of electronic Certificates of Origin
The protocol gives electronic Certificates of Origin the same legal validity as paper ones.
Which country held the Pro Tempore Presidency of MERCOSUR when India and MERCOSUR announced talks to expand their PTA in September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Uruguay
Uruguay's Foreign Minister Mario Lubetkin acted in the exercise of MERCOSUR's Pro Tempore Presidency.
The First Additional Protocol to the India–MERCOSUR PTA amends a provision in which part of the agreement?
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Correct answer: B — Annex III — Rules of Origin
It amends Article 16 of Annex III (Rules of Origin).
Consider the following about the India–MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement: 1. It was signed in 2004 and entered into force in 2009. 2. Under it, India gives tariff concessions on more tariff lines than MERCOSUR does. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The PTA was signed on 25 January 2004 and entered into force on 1 June 2009. India offers concessions on 450 tariff lines and MERCOSUR on 452, so MERCOSUR covers slightly more.
What was India's WPI-based wholesale inflation for August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 9.92%
WPI inflation for August 2026 was 9.92%, up from 9.78% in July.
Consider the following about WPI data for August 2026: 1. The WPI series now uses 2022-23 as its base year. 2. The WPI Food Index has a weight of 24.99%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The WPI uses base year 2022-23, and the Food Index (food articles plus manufactured food products) has a weight of 24.99%.
Under which operation did the DRI seize Pakistan-origin dry dates routed through the UAE, as announced on 14 September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Operation Deep Manifest
The seizure was made under 'Operation Deep Manifest', which targets Pakistan-origin goods routed through third countries.
From which date has India prohibited the direct or indirect import of all goods originating in Pakistan?
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Correct answer: D — 2 May 2025
DGFT Notification No. 06/2025-26 dated 2 May 2025 banned direct or indirect import or transit of all Pakistan-origin goods.
Consider the following about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): 1. It was established in 1957. 2. It functions under the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The DRI was set up in 1957 and is the apex anti-smuggling agency under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), not the CBDT.
From which date will the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 January 2027
The amended rules notified on 10 September 2026 take effect from 1 January 2027.
Under the amended e-commerce rules of 2026, how is the 'prior price' shown alongside a discounted price defined?
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Correct answer: C — The lowest price offered during the 30 days before the discount
The 'prior price' is the lowest price at which the goods or services were offered in the 30 days before the price reduction was announced.
About what share of the grievances received by the National Consumer Helpline in 2025 related to the e-commerce sector?
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Correct answer: B — About 29%
Of 17,71,622 grievances in 2025, 5,11,196 — around 29% — related to e-commerce.
Consider the following about the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. E-commerce entities must undertake a yearly self-audit for compliance with the Dark Patterns Guidelines, 2023. 2. Disclosure of country of origin has been made optional for imported goods. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Entities must self-audit yearly and display a compliance certificate; importer details and country of origin must be disclosed for imported goods.
The Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 replaces a law originally enacted in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1891
The 2026 Act replaces the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891.
From which date will the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 2026
A notification dated 10 September 2026 appointed 1 October 2026 as the commencement date; the Act got assent on 13 August 2026.
Under the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026, what must a court record before summoning bank officials in a case where the bank is not a party?
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Correct answer: B — A 'special cause' in writing
The Act requires the court to record a 'special cause' in writing for such summoning.
Consider the following about the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026: 1. It recognises banking records maintained in electronic, digital and cloud-based forms. 2. The Central Government may extend its provisions to specified financial sector entities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Act is technology-neutral, covering physical, electronic, digital, virtual and cloud-based records, and the Centre may extend it to specified financial sector entities.
The first-ever district-level estimates for the unincorporated non-agricultural sector released by NSO in September 2026 are based on which survey?
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Correct answer: B — ASUSE 2025
The district-level report draws on Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) 2025 data.
According to NSO's district-level estimates (September 2026), the top 50 districts by number of unincorporated establishments account for about what share of total establishments, workforce and GVA?
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Correct answer: C — One-third
The top 50 districts account for nearly one-third of total establishments, workforce and Gross Value Added.
Consider the following findings of NSO's district-level estimates for the unincorporated sector (September 2026): 1. In 237 districts, women constitute one-third of the workforce in the unincorporated sector. 2. GVA per worker exceeds the all-India average in fewer than 100 districts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Women form one-third of the workforce in 237 districts, and GVA per worker exceeds the all-India average in 280 districts.
Under which section of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 did FIU-IND issue notices to 15 VDA service providers on 9 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Section 13
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the PMLA.
Since when have Virtual Digital Asset Service Providers been covered by India's AML/CFT framework under the PMLA?
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Correct answer: B — March 2023
VDA SPs were brought under the AML/CFT framework of the PMLA in March 2023.
Consider the following about FIU-IND's action of 9 September 2026 against VDA service providers: 1. FIU-IND also sought takedown of their apps and URLs as nodal officer under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000. 2. Notices were issued to 25 entities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The FIU-IND Director issued takedown notices under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act; notices went to 15 entities, not 25.
Which city hosted the 7th Global Fintech Fest (GFF) 2026, inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 8 September 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Mumbai
GFF 2026 was held in Mumbai from 8 to 11 September 2026.
Which of the following is NOT one of the principal organisers of the Global Fintech Fest?
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Correct answer: A — Reserve Bank of India
PIB lists PCI, NPCI and the Fintech Convergence Council (FCC) as the principal organisers of GFF.
Consider the following statements about GFF 2026: 1. Its theme focused on Agentic AI, Tokenisation and Quantum. 2. At the inauguration, PM Modi urged the sector to work on a Fintech Consumer Protection Index. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the theme was 'Potential to Impact: Agentic AI | Tokenisation | Quantum…', and the PM called for a Fintech Consumer Protection Index.
According to the PIB backgrounder on GFF 2026, how many banks were live on UPI in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 741
In July 2026 UPI processed 2,365.8 crore transactions worth ₹29.88 lakh crore with 741 banks live on the platform.
How many applications were received in Round 1 of the ₹37,500 crore Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects?
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Correct answer: A — Seven
The Ministry of Coal said Round 1 closed with seven applications.
What national coal gasification capacity target does India have for 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 100 million tonnes
The national objective is 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, including 75 million tonnes under the new scheme.
Consider the following statements: 1. Adani Enterprises submitted three projects with urea as the end product in Round 1. 2. The ₹37,500 crore scheme replaced an earlier ₹8,500 crore scheme whose projects were cancelled. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The new scheme builds on the ₹8,500 crore scheme of January 2024, under which eight projects are still being implemented.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which has prevented suspected cyber fraud of over ₹5,000 crore, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Telecommunications
The FRI was developed by the Department of Telecommunications under its Digital Intelligence Platform.
Under the FRI, mobile numbers are classified into which risk categories?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
The FRI classifies mobile numbers as Medium, High or Very High risk.
Consider the following statements about the FRI: 1. It was launched on 22 May 2025. 2. It draws on citizen reports from the Sanchar Saathi platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the FRI was launched on 22 May 2025 and uses inputs including Sanchar Saathi citizen reports.
The Open API facility for Certificates of Origin launched on 7 September 2026 is available on which platform?
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Correct answer: A — Trade Connect e-Platform
DGFT introduced the Open API for CoO issuance and verification through the Trade Connect e-Platform.
Consider the following statements about DGFT's Open API facility: 1. It covers only preferential Certificates of Origin issued under FTAs. 2. It lets exporters send application data from their own ERP or accounting software. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The facility covers both preferential and non-preferential Certificates of Origin.
At the SRCC centenary on 5 September 2026, what quarterly growth rate did PM Modi cite for India?
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Correct answer: D — 7.8%
The PM said achieving 7.8% quarterly growth amid the West Asia war and trade hurdles shows India's intrinsic capability.
Shri Ram College of Commerce, which celebrated its centenary in September 2026, began as a modest establishment in which part of Delhi?
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Correct answer: A — Daryaganj
The PM traced SRCC's evolution from a modest establishment in Daryaganj.
How much coal did Coal India Limited supply during April–August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 322.90 MT
CIL supplied 322.90 MT, 6.70% more than the 302.60 MT of the same period last year.
As per the Coal Ministry's 5 September 2026 update, how much coal stock did Coal India hold at its pitheads?
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Correct answer: D — 76 MT
CIL holds a 76 MT pithead stock cushion, along with 46 MT of ready-to-mine coal exposure.
Which Belgian Prime Minister attended the India–Belgium High-Level Dialogue on the India–EU FTA in Mumbai on 4 September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Bart De Wever
Belgian PM Bart De Wever attended the dialogue with Piyush Goyal and CM Devendra Fadnavis.
According to Piyush Goyal, the India–EU FTA brings together a market of how many people and what share of global GDP?
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Correct answer: D — 2 billion; one-quarter
The FTA brings together 2 billion people, a quarter of global GDP, a third of world trade and a USD 24 trillion market.
India–EU bilateral trade, which has doubled in the last decade, stands at nearly how much as per the Commerce Ministry (September 2026)?
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Correct answer: A — USD 140 billion
Piyush Goyal said India–EU trade has doubled in the last decade to nearly USD 140 billion; USD 24 trillion is the combined market size.
Consider the following statements from the India–Belgium High-Level Dialogue on the India–EU FTA: 1. All 27 EU countries are on board and want the agreement brought into force at the earliest. 2. The Port of Antwerp-Bruges was highlighted as a gateway for Indian exports into Europe. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
The Corporate Mitra initiative, whose first course batch began in September 2026, was announced in which document?
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Correct answer: B — Union Budget 2026-27
Corporate Mitra was announced in the Union Budget 2026-27 to create certified paraprofessionals for MSME compliance.
Which of the following bodies is NOT one of the three professional institutes running the Corporate Mitra course?
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Correct answer: C — Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
The course is run by ICAI, ICSI and ICoAI under MCA guidance, with support from IIT Madras, IIT Madras Pravartak and SWAYAM Plus.
Under which provisions did the National Financial Reporting Authority constitute its Advisory Committee on Audit Quality, Assurance and Technology in September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Rules 15 and 16 of the NFRA Rules, 2018
NFRA acted under Rules 15 and 16 of the NFRA Rules, 2018, which authorise it to form committees, study groups and task forces.
NFRA's first advisory body, the Technical Advisory Committee, was constituted in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2020
The Technical Advisory Committee was constituted in 2020 and its term ended in December 2022.
What was SAIL's crude steel production in August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1.68 MT
Crude steel production grew 8% to 1.68 MT from 1.55 MT; 1.78 MT is hot metal.
By what percentage did SAIL's total sales volume grow year-on-year in August 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 13%
Total sales rose 13% to 1.871 MT; cash collections grew 23%.
What was India's crude steel production in April–August 2026, as reported by the Steel Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 70.3 Mt
Crude steel production was 70.3 Mt, up 1.8% from 69.0 Mt; 68.1 Mt is finished steel production.
Consider the following statements about India's finished steel trade in April–August 2026: 1. Finished steel exports grew faster than imports in percentage terms. 2. India was a net exporter of finished steel by quantity during the period. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: exports rose 34.1% against imports' 29.5%. Statement 2 is wrong: India remained a net importer by quantity (≈3.49 Mt imports vs ≈2.99 Mt exports).
To what level did Japan Credit Rating Agency upgrade India's long-term issuer ratings on 2 September 2026?
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Correct answer: C — A-
JCR upgraded India by one notch from 'BBB+' to 'A-' with a stable outlook.
Along with the rating upgrade, to what level did JCR raise India's country ceiling in September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — A
JCR raised India's country ceiling by one notch to 'A'.
According to JCR, the Central Government's fiscal deficit declined to what level in FY26?
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Correct answer: D — 4.4% of GDP
JCR noted the fiscal deficit declined from 4.7% in FY25 to 4.4% in FY26.
Consider the following statements about JCR's September 2026 rating action on India: 1. India's ratings were upgraded by two notches. 2. The outlook on the ratings is Stable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the upgrade was by one notch (BBB+ to A-). Statement 2 is correct.
Tripura's NPOP-certified ethnic rice flagged off on 2 September 2026 was exported to which countries?
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Correct answer: B — Austria and the Netherlands
The 18 MT consignment was flagged off for export to Austria and the Netherlands.
Among the four Tripura rice varieties in the September 2026 export consignment, which one is a black rice?
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Correct answer: D — Maimi Hanga
Maimi Hanga is the black rice; Biron is white sticky rice, and Kali Khasa and Harinarayan are aromatic varieties.
For listing which substance without mandatory safeguards did the CCPA fine Dial4Trade ₹10 lakh in September 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ammonium nitrate
The penalty was for facilitating online listing and sale of ammonium nitrate without the required safeguards.
Under which law did the Central Consumer Protection Authority pass its order against Dial4Trade?
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Correct answer: B — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
The order was passed under Sections 10, 20 and 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; the Explosives Act, 1884 classifies the substance.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's Dial4Trade order: 1. The CCPA found no mechanism for traceability of transactions as required under the Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012. 2. The order was passed by a CCPA bench headed by Chief Commissioner Anupam Mishra. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CCPA is headed by Chief Commissioner Nidhi Khare; Anupam Mishra is a Commissioner.
How much had IFSC Banking Units at GIFT City disbursed under the RBI's FCNR(B) swap facility by 31 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — About $52.82 billion
20 IBUs sanctioned $54.02 billion, of which about $52.82 billion had been disbursed.
Which authority regulates the International Financial Services Centre at GIFT City and reported the IBU figures in September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA)
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) highlighted the IBU figures.
Which office hosted the 18th Meeting of Heads of IP Offices of BRICS countries in New Delhi in September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (DPIIT)
The meeting was hosted by the O/o CGPDTM under DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
What is the theme of India's BRICS Chairship, referred to at the BRICS IP heads meeting in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Deliberations were aligned with the theme of India's BRICS Chairship, 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
India Post Payments Bank, which marked its 9th Foundation Day in 2026, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 1 September 2018
IPPB was launched on 1 September 2018 under the Department of Posts.
What did India Post Payments Bank launch for merchants on its 9th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: B — DakPay Sound Box
IPPB launched the DakPay Sound Box for merchants to simplify digital payment acceptance.
According to the Defence Minister in September 2026, what was India's approximate defence production in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.8 lakh crore
India achieved defence production of about ₹1.8 lakh crore in 2025-26, with DPSUs contributing ₹1.29 lakh crore.
How many Defence Public Sector Undertakings did Rajnath Singh review on 1 September 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 16
Rajnath Singh reviewed the annual performance of 16 DPSUs.
To what level did the Centre cut the stock holding limit for sugar dealers from 15 September 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 2,000 quintals
The limit was cut from 4,000 to 2,000 quintals, effective 15 September to 30 November 2026.
Which area was allowed to keep the higher sugar stock limit of 4,000 quintals under the September 2026 order?
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Correct answer: C — Kolkata and its extended metropolitan area
The 4,000-quintal limit continues for Kolkata and its extended metropolitan area, which supplies eastern India and the North-East.
The National Land Monetization Corporation, which announced the e-auction of RINL land in Visakhapatnam, functions under which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance
NLMC is a 100% Government-owned enterprise under the administrative control of the Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance.