Tamil Nadu State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Import of firecrackers into India is 'Restricted' and requires licences from the DGFT and which other body under the Explosives Rules, 2008?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO)
Firecracker imports need valid licences from both the DGFT and the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) under the Explosives Rules, 2008.
Through which port did the DRI foil attempts to smuggle Chinese-origin firecrackers worth Rs 35 crore, as reported on 27 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai Port
DRI foiled two attempts to smuggle Chinese-origin fireworks and firecrackers into India through Chennai Port.
Where was the world's first hydrogen production facility based on the Copper–Chlorine thermochemical cycle using nuclear heat inaugurated on 26 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — IGCAR, Kalpakkam
The facility was inaugurated at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam.
The nuclear process heat for the Cu–Cl hydrogen facility inaugurated in June 2026 comes from which reactor?
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Correct answer: D — Fast Breeder Test Reactor
The facility uses nuclear process heat generated from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at IGCAR.
The Copper–Chlorine thermochemical hydrogen production process demonstrated at Kalpakkam in June 2026 was developed indigenously by:
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Correct answer: A — Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
The Cu–Cl thermochemical process was developed indigenously by BARC, Mumbai; the facility was built jointly by BARC and IGCAR.
FBTR expertise at IGCAR laid the foundation for the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR). PFBR is the flagship of which stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme?
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Correct answer: C — Second stage
DAE describes the 500 MWe PFBR as the flagship of the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme.
According to its first Sustainability Report highlighted on 23 June 2026, by about how much has V.O. Chidambaranar Port cut its net carbon emissions?
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Correct answer: B — About 45%
The report found net carbon emissions reduced by around 45%; renewable energy offsets nearly 94% of the energy-consumption equivalent.
Which institution's case study 'The Hydrogen Pivot', about V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority, was released by Sarbananda Sonowal on 23 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — IIM Calcutta
Sonowal released the IIM Calcutta case study 'The Hydrogen Pivot: Orchestrating the Green Transition at V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority'.
Which State emerged as the biggest beneficiary of the PSS procurement approvals for pulses and oilseeds on 18 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh is the biggest beneficiary, with moong, urad and groundnut approvals worth over ₹1,490 crore at MSP.
Under the June 2026 PSS approvals, how much moong procurement was approved for Gujarat for the Summer 2026 season?
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Correct answer: B — 18,250 MT
18,250 MT of moong was approved for Gujarat, with an MSP value of over ₹160 crore.
Consider the following statements about the PSS approvals of 18 June 2026: 1. Tamil Nadu's moong procurement limit for RMS 2025-26 was raised from 885 MT to 990 MT. 2. Haryana received approval for procurement of 2,115 MT of moong. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Agriculture release.
In May 2026, who was appointed Director-General of Police and Head of the Police Force of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: D — Mahesh Kumar Aggarwal
Tamil Nadu appointed Mahesh Kumar Aggarwal (IPS 1994) as DGP/HoPF on 29 May 2026, replacing Sandeep Rai Rathore.
Under the Supreme Court guidelines cited for the Tamil Nadu DGP appointment (May 2026), what is the fixed tenure of a State's DGP and Head of Police Force?
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Correct answer: B — Two years
Under the Prakash Singh guidelines, the DGP and Head of Police Force holds the post for a fixed tenure of two years.
The 4-lane Thiruvarur Bypass approved in May 2026 lies on which section of NH-83 in Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: C — Nagapattinam–Thanjavur
The 14.9-km bypass is on the Nagapattinam–Thanjavur section of NH-83.
The Thiruvarur Bypass project is expected to improve connectivity of industrial hubs like Tiruchirappalli and Coimbatore with which port towns?
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Correct answer: B — Karaikal and Nagapattinam
Gadkari said the project will connect Tiruchirappalli and Coimbatore with the port towns of Karaikal and Nagapattinam.
The ANRF Convergence Research Centres of Excellence announced in May 2026 mainly aim to:
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Correct answer: C — combine social sciences and humanities with science and technology
The programme brings together social sciences, humanities, science and technology to address complex societal challenges.
'SAṂYoga', one of the ANRF Convergence Research CoEs selected in May 2026, is a Center for Sanskrit, AI, Music and Yoga at which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Madras
SAṂYoga - Center for Sanskrit AI Music and Yoga is IIT Madras's project. IIT Gandhinagar's centre is on human-climate interactions, and IIT Dharwad's is on rural livelihoods.
Which institution restituted the 11th-century Chola Copper Plates to India on 16 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Leiden University Library
Leiden University Library returned the Chola Copper Plates in the presence of PM Modi and PM Rob Jetten.
The Chola Copper Plates returned in May 2026 record the gift of Anaimangalam village to a Buddha vihara located in:
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Correct answer: B — Nagapattinam
The charters formalise the gift of Anaimangalam village to the Chulamanivarma-vihara in Nagapattinam, Tamil Nadu.
Consider the following statements about the Chola Copper Plates restituted to India in May 2026: 1. The set consists of 21 large plates and 3 small plates. 2. The texts on the plates are written only in Tamil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the plates contain texts in both Tamil and Sanskrit.
India's first mega greenfield shipyard at Thoothukudi is being developed with which Korean company?
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Correct answer: C — HD Korea Shipbuilding & Offshore Engineering
The tripartite MoU is between HD Korea Shipbuilding & Offshore Engineering (HD KSOE), NSHIP-TN and Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd.
Consider the following statements: 1. Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 aims to place India among the top five shipbuilding nations with output of 4.5 million GT per annum by 2047. 2. The proposed Thoothukudi greenfield shipyard alone has an envisaged annual capacity of 4.5 million GT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Thoothukudi shipyard's envisaged annual capacity is 2.5 million GT; 4.5 million GT is the national MAKV 2047 target.
The three Tamil Nadu temple bronzes whose return was announced in May 2026 are being repatriated from which institution?
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Correct answer: A — Smithsonian's National Museum of Asian Art
The bronzes are being repatriated from the Smithsonian's National Museum of Asian Art in the United States.
The Chola-period Shiva Nataraja (c. 990 CE) being repatriated from the Smithsonian originally belonged to a temple in which district of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: D — Thanjavur
It belonged to the Sri Bhava Aushadesvara Temple in Thanjavur district, where it was photographed in 1957.
C. Joseph Vijay, sworn in as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026, heads which party?
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Correct answer: A — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay is the president of the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK); the VCK was among the parties that backed his government.
Who administered the oath of office to C. Joseph Vijay as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar administered the oath of office and secrecy; under Article 164(3) the Governor administers oaths to State ministers.
How many seats did the TVK win in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly in its first election in 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 108
TVK won 108 of 234 seats, short of the majority mark of 118, and formed the government with outside support.
Which of the following parties was NOT among those that backed the TVK government in Tamil Nadu in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AIADMK
The TVK was backed by the Congress, CPI, CPI(M), VCK and IUML; the AIADMK was not among its supporters.
Consider the following statements about Article 164 of the Constitution of India: 1. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. 2. The forms of the oaths of office and secrecy for State Ministers are set out in the Second Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Article 164(3) says the oath forms are set out in the Third Schedule; the Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances.
Which institute set up the Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory inaugurated in Chennai in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune
IITM Pune, under Mission Mausam, established the observatory at SRMIST, Ramapuram, Chennai.
Mission Mausam, under which the Chennai Urban Testbed and Aerosol Observatory was set up, was launched in:
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Correct answer: D — September 2024
Mission Mausam was launched by the Prime Minister in September 2024 as a major scientific initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which party emerged as the single largest party in the Tamil Nadu Assembly election results of 4 May 2026, winning 108 seats?
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Correct answer: C — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay's Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam won 108 of 234 seats on its debut; the DMK won 59 and the AIADMK 47.
What is the majority mark in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly, which the TVK missed by 10 seats in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 118
The majority mark in the 234-member House is 118; the TVK's 108 seats left it 10 short.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. TVK chief Vijay won from both Perambur and Tiruchi East. 2. The TVK secured more than 45% of the votes polled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: Vijay won both Perambur and Tiruchi East, but the TVK's vote share was about 35%, not over 45%.
Which party finished second in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election with 59 seats?
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Correct answer: B — DMK
The ruling DMK won 59 seats, behind the TVK's 108; the AIADMK won 47.
The indigenous Silicon Photonics Process Design Kit launched by MeitY in April 2026 was developed at:
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
Both solutions were developed at the MeitY-sponsored CoE-CPPICS, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the silicon photonics solutions launched on 24 April 2026: 1. The Process Design Kit has over 50 verified components. 2. A Silicon Photonics Fab has already been commissioned under the India Semiconductor Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PDK has over 50 verified components; a Silicon Photonics Fab is only envisaged after commercial demonstration, so only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI's statistical report, the final state polling percentage in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election (including postal ballots) was:
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Correct answer: C — 86.03%
ECI's Statistical Report (Highlights) records a state polling percentage of 86.03%; 78.29% was the previous highest, in 2011.
How many Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu went to the polls on 23 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 234
All 234 Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu voted in a single phase on 23 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. Of the 234 constituencies, 44 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 2 for Scheduled Tribes. 2. Before 2026, the highest poll participation in Tamil Nadu was recorded in the 2016 Assembly election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ECI's Highlights list 188 general, 44 SC and 2 ST seats; ECI said the previous highest participation was 78.29% in 2011, not 2016. Only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI, total election seizures in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal up to 22 April 2026 stood at about:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,072 crore
ECI reported total seizures of ₹1,072.13 crore in the two states, with Tamil Nadu at ₹599.24 crore and West Bengal at ₹472.89 crore.
Consider the following statements about election enforcement in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (2026): 1. The Election Seizure Management System was activated on 26 February 2026. 2. West Bengal recorded higher total seizures than Tamil Nadu up to 22 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ESMS was activated on 26 February 2026; Tamil Nadu (₹599.24 crore) recorded more than West Bengal (₹472.89 crore), so only statement 1 is correct.
The fireworks unit explosion of 19 April 2026 that killed 25 workers took place in which district of Tamil Nadu?
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Correct answer: B — Virudhunagar
The blast occurred at the Vanaja Fireworks unit in Kattanarpatti, Virudhunagar district.
Consider the following statements about the Virudhunagar fireworks blast of April 2026: 1. According to the district Collector, the unit was operating on a Sunday without permission. 2. A second explosion occurred during the rescue operation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Collector said the unit was working on a Sunday without permission, and a second blast during rescue injured police personnel and firemen.
As per ECI instructions, distribution of Voter Information Slips must be completed at least how many days before polling day?
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Correct answer: C — 5 days
ECI says the process is to be completed at least 5 days before the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about Voter Information Slips (VIS) for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Voters with visual impairment receive Braille-enabled Accessible Voter Information Slips in addition to the regular VIS. 2. VIS may be printed in any language a voter requests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ECI has instructed that VIS be only in the languages in which the electoral roll is published for that constituency.
What is the capacity of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam that attained first criticality on 6 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 500 MWe
The Department of Atomic Energy describes the PFBR as a 500 MWe reactor.
Consider the following statements about the PFBR at Kalpakkam: 1. Its technology and design were developed by the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR). 2. It was built and commissioned by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the DAE says the PFBR was built and commissioned by BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd), a DAE PSU.
According to the PIB backgrounder on the PFBR, once it is fully operational India will become only the second country to operate a commercial fast breeder reactor after which country?
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Correct answer: D — Russia
The PIB backgrounder says that once fully operational, India will be only the second country in the world after Russia to operate a commercial fast breeder reactor.
What was the total value of seizures in the five poll-bound states and UT from 26 February to 5 April 2026, as reported by the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — ₹651.51 crore
The ECI table shows a total of ₹651.51 crore; ₹319 crore is West Bengal's share.
Within how much time are the ECI's flying squads expected to attend to complaints during the 2026 Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: B — 100 minutes
The ECI said over 5,173 flying squads were deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements about election seizures reported by the ECI on 5 April 2026: 1. West Bengal accounted for the largest value of seizures among the five states and UT. 2. The Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS) was activated on 26 February 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: West Bengal led with ₹319 crore, and the data runs from ESMS activation on 26 February 2026.
Under which provision does the Election Commission allot free broadcast and telecast time on Doordarshan and AIR to recognised parties?
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Correct answer: B — Section 39A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
The ECI issued the directions under Section 39A of the RP Act, 1951, for the 2026 Assembly elections.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, what base broadcast time has the ECI allotted to each recognised party on both Doordarshan and All India Radio?
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Correct answer: C — 45 minutes
Each party gets a base time of 45 minutes on both Doordarshan and AIR, plus extra time based on its previous Assembly poll performance.
How many standardised Voter Facilitation Posters must be displayed at each polling station in the 2026 polls, as per the ECI's direction of 22 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four uniform Voter Facilitation Posters will show polling station details, list of candidates, do's and don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
Consider the following about the ECI's directions of 22 March 2026 for polling stations: 1. Provision of Assured Minimum Facilities is advisory and left to the discretion of CEOs. 2. Voters can deposit their switched-off mobile phones with a volunteer outside the polling station entrance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said AMF provisioning is mandatory and will be monitored, so statement 1 is wrong; a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the entrance.
Which State auctioned the most mineral blocks in FY 2025-26, when India auctioned a record 200 blocks?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
Gujarat led with 32 blocks, followed by Rajasthan (30) and Tamil Nadu (22).
Which mineral accounted for the largest number of blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — Limestone
Limestone accounted for 76 blocks, the most auctioned mineral, followed by iron ore (40) and bauxite (30).
Consider the following about mineral block auctions in FY 2025-26: 1. A majority of the 200 auctioned blocks were Composite Licence blocks. 2. Tamil Nadu conducted mineral block auctions for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: 123 of the 200 were Mining Lease blocks and 77 Composite Licence blocks. Statement 2 is correct.
Electors above 85 and flagged PwDs who want to vote by postal ballot in the 2026 Assembly elections must apply using:
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Correct answer: A — Form 12D
Such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of notification.
Consider the following about the postal ballot facility for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Form 12D can be submitted up to 15 days after the notification of election. 2. The facility for electors above 85 and PwDs flows from Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Form 12D must be submitted within 5 days of notification. Statement 2 is correct.
For the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs, the ECI deployed roughly one election official for every how many electors?
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Correct answer: C — 70
Over 25 lakh officials for over 17.4 crore electors amounts to nearly one official for every 70 electors.
Consider the following about the ECI's deployment for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Expenditure Observers outnumber General Observers among the Central Observers. 2. Deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to the ECI under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: there are 557 General Observers and 366 Expenditure Observers. Statement 2 is correct.
How many Central Observers did the Election Commission deploy for the 2026 Assembly elections in five States/UTs and the bye-elections?
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Correct answer: C — 1,111
The ECI deployed 1,111 observers: 557 general, 188 police and 366 expenditure observers.
The Election Commission appoints Central Observers under Article 324 of the Constitution read with which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
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Correct answer: D — Section 20B
Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
In how many phases will the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election be held, as announced by the ECI on 15 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Two
West Bengal votes in two phases, on 23 April and 29 April 2026; Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry vote in a single phase.
On which date will votes be counted for the 2026 Assembly elections in Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Puducherry?
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Correct answer: D — 4 May 2026
Counting for all five Assemblies is scheduled for 4 May 2026.
Which of the following Assemblies going to polls in 2026 has the largest number of seats?
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Correct answer: D — West Bengal
West Bengal has 294 seats, against 234 in Tamil Nadu, 140 in Kerala, 126 in Assam and 30 in Puducherry.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, the Election Commission fixed the maximum number of electors per polling station at:
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Correct answer: B — 1,200
The ECI press note of 15 March 2026 says there shall be a maximum of 1,200 electors in a polling station.
Consider the following about the 2026 Assembly elections announced on 15 March 2026: 1. The ECI conducts them in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force only after the formal notification of each phase. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ECI press note. Statement 2 is wrong: the Model Code of Conduct came into effect immediately from the announcement of the schedule.
Along with the 2026 Assembly elections, the ECI announced bye-elections to how many Assembly constituencies in Goa, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Nagaland and Tripura?
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Correct answer: B — Eight
Bye-elections were announced for 8 Assembly constituencies spread across these six States.
Which postal circle was praised on 15 March 2026 for ranking second in the country in overall revenue?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
At the GDS Sammelan in Chennai, MoS Pemmasani lauded the Tamil Nadu postal circle for ranking second in overall revenue.
Consider the following about India Post, as recalled at the GDS Sammelan in Chennai on 15 March 2026: 1. India Post in its present form was established on 1 October 1854. 2. The General Post Office in Calcutta was set up in 1774. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the GPO in Calcutta was set up in 1774, and India Post in its present form was established on 1 October 1854.
According to the MoS Communications on 15 March 2026, India Post works through more than how many post offices?
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Correct answer: C — 1.6 lakh
India Post works through more than 1.6 lakh post offices, with about four lakh regular employees and over 2.5 lakh Gramin Dak Sevaks.
What is the toll-free helpline number for pro bono legal services highlighted at the Tele-Law workshop in Chennai on 14 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 14454
The toll-free helpline 14454 offers pro bono legal services under the Tele-Law programme.
Consider the following about the Tele-Law programme discussed in Chennai on 14 March 2026: 1. It is run under the DISHA (Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice) scheme of the Department of Justice. 2. Article 39A of the Constitution, cited at the workshop, deals with equal justice and free legal aid. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Tele-Law is a DISHA programme of the Department of Justice, and the Madras High Court Chief Justice cited Articles 14, 21 and 39A — Article 39A being the Directive Principle on equal justice and free legal aid.
The greenfield bypass awarded by NHAI on 12 March 2026 around Gangaikonda Cholapuram is on which National Highway?
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Correct answer: A — NH-81
The 7-km bypass is on the Kallagam–Meensurutti section of NH-81 in Tamil Nadu.
Which heritage monument is the Gangaikonda Cholapuram bypass, awarded on 12 March 2026, designed to protect?
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Correct answer: B — Brihadeeswara Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram
NH-81 runs very close to the 1,000-year-old Brihadeeswara Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram, a UNESCO World Heritage monument; the bypass will divert heavy vehicles away from it.