REET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which Prime Minister of Nepal resigned on 9 September 2025 following youth-led 'Gen Z' protests?
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Correct answer: C — K.P. Sharma Oli
K.P. Sharma Oli resigned on 9 September 2025 after protests sparked by a social media ban turned deadly.
Which body did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 9 September 2025 to discuss the developments in Nepal?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
On his return from Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, the PM chaired a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security to discuss the developments in Nepal.
What immediately triggered the 'Gen Z' protests in Nepal that led to the Prime Minister's resignation in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A ban on social media platforms
Reuters and AP reported that the outrage was sparked by a ban on social media platforms, alongside anger over corruption.
Consider the following statements about the Nepal crisis of September 2025: 1. The Nepal government kept the social media ban in force even after 19 people were killed on 8 September. 2. Sushila Karki became interim Prime Minister on the same day that K.P. Sharma Oli resigned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the government lifted the ban after 19 people were killed on 8 September, and Oli resigned on 9 September while Karki was sworn in on 12 September.
How many votes did C.P. Radhakrishnan secure in the Vice-Presidential election of 9 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 452
Returning Officer P.C. Mody declared Radhakrishnan elected with 452 first-preference votes; B. Sudershan Reddy received 300.
Who was the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential election of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
The ECI said the Returning Officer was the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; P.C. Mody announced the result.
Out of 781 eligible electors in the Vice-Presidential election of September 2025, how many cast their votes?
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Correct answer: B — 767
The ECI said 767 of the 781 eligible electors voted and 15 ballot papers were declared invalid, leaving 752 valid votes.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election of 2025: 1. With 15 ballots declared invalid, the majority of first-preference votes required to win was 377. 2. The certificate of election was signed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners on 9 September 2025, the day of the poll. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. With 752 valid votes the required majority was 377, but the ECI said the certificate of election was signed on 10 September 2025, the day after the poll.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Congress, at which India launched the UPI–UPU Integration project, held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dubai
Jyotiraditya Scindia unveiled the UPI–UPU Integration project at the 28th Universal Postal Congress in Dubai, UAE.
The UPI–UPU Integration project links India's UPI with which UPU system?
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Correct answer: B — UPU Interconnection Platform (IP)
The project integrates India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with the UPU Interconnection Platform (IP), combining the postal network's reach with UPI's speed and affordability.
How much financial support did India commit to the global postal sector during this UPU cycle, as announced at the Dubai Congress?
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Correct answer: C — USD 10 million
Scindia announced India's commitment of 10 million dollars during this cycle to channel technology into innovation, with special focus on e-commerce and digital payments.
Consider the following statements about the UPI–UPU Integration project: 1. It was developed jointly by the Department of Posts, NPCI International Payments Limited and the Universal Postal Union. 2. At the Congress, India announced its candidature for the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the project was developed by the Department of Posts, NIPL and the UPU, and Scindia announced India's candidature for the Council of Administration and the Postal Operations Council.
How many new Indian fishery establishments did the European Union list for exports, as announced in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 102
The EU listed 102 new Indian fishery establishments for export to EU member countries in 2025.
Which Indian body implements the official control mechanisms whose robustness led to the EU listing of 102 new fishery establishments?
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Correct answer: B — Export Inspection Council (EIC)
The ministry said the meetings built confidence in India's robust official control mechanisms implemented by the Export Inspection Council (EIC).
In ESIC's SPREE-2025 initiative, what does 'SPREE' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees
SPREE-2025 is the Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees, operational till 31 December 2025.
ESIC's AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is a one-time dispute resolution scheme in force during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2025 – 30 September 2026
The AMNESTY Scheme-2025 is in effect from 1 October 2025 to 30 September 2026 to settle issues related to damages, interest and coverage under the ESI Act.
Under which law/order are biostimulants regulated in India, following a notification of February 2021?
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Correct answer: C — Fertilizer Control Order, 1985
Notification S.O. 882(E) of 23 February 2021 included biostimulants in the Fertilizer Control Order, 1985, with Clause 20C providing for quality regulation; pesticides and plant growth regulators remain under the Insecticides Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about biostimulant regulation in India: 1. Only 146 biostimulant products have so far been included in Schedule VI of the Fertilizer Control Order. 2. Plant growth regulators are classified as biostimulants under the Fertilizer Control Order. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct as per the ministry. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FCO definition of biostimulant excludes pesticides and plant growth regulators, which are regulated under the Insecticides Act, 1968.
In which country was the multilateral military exercise ZAPAD 2025, joined by an Indian contingent, held?
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Correct answer: A — Russia
The Indian contingent departed for the Mulino Training Ground, Nizhniy, Russia, for ZAPAD 2025 held from 10 to 16 September 2025.
A battalion of which regiment led the Indian Army component at Exercise ZAPAD 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kumaon Regiment
The Indian Army contingent was led by a battalion of the Kumaon Regiment along with troops from other arms and services.
What was the strength of the Indian Armed Forces contingent for ZAPAD 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 65
The contingent had 65 personnel: 57 from the Indian Army, 7 from the Indian Air Force and 1 from the Indian Navy.
Who signed the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement on behalf of Israel in New Delhi on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bezalel Smotrich
Israel's Finance Minister Bezalel Smotrich signed the BIA with Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
According to the Government of India, what is the present level of bilateral investment between India and Israel, cited at the signing of the BIA in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About USD 800 million
The release said bilateral investments presently stand at a total of USD 800 million.
Consider the following statements about the India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement signed in September 2025: 1. It provides an independent dispute resolution mechanism through arbitration. 2. It removes the host State's right to regulate in the public interest in favour of investor protection. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The BIA provides arbitration-based dispute resolution, but the government said it balances investor protection with the State's regulatory rights, preserving policy space. So only statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following was NOT listed as an area of cooperation committed to by the Finance Ministers of India and Israel at the BIA signing in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Joint space exploration
The ministers committed to cooperation in fintech innovation, infrastructure development, financial regulation and digital payment connectivity; space exploration was not listed.
Which French Prime Minister lost a confidence vote in the National Assembly on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — François Bayrou
François Bayrou and his minority government were ousted in the confidence vote on 8 September 2025.
What was the result of the confidence vote that brought down the French government on 8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 364 against, 194 for
Reuters, AP and the BBC reported 364 votes against Bayrou and 194 in his favour.
The French government's confidence vote of 8 September 2025 was centred on which issue?
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Correct answer: A — Plans to cut spending and rein in national debt
Bayrou staked his government on winning support for plans to cut public spending and tame the ballooning national debt.
Which country's Prime Minister, Shigeru Ishiba, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Shigeru Ishiba, Prime Minister of Japan, announced his resignation on 7 September 2025.
Shigeru Ishiba resigned as president of which party in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Liberal Democratic Party
Ishiba said he was stepping down as prime minister and as head of the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP).
Before announcing his resignation in September 2025, Japan's PM Shigeru Ishiba said he had waited for the conclusion of which negotiations?
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Correct answer: A — Negotiations on US tariff measures
Ishiba said he waited until negotiations on US tariff measures reached a conclusion before stepping aside.
Consider the following statements about Shigeru Ishiba's resignation announced on 7 September 2025: 1. It followed his party's historic defeat in the July 2025 upper house election. 2. Ishiba said he would continue his duties until a successor was chosen. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Reuters, AP and the BBC reported that Ishiba faced pressure after the July 2025 election defeat and said he would continue his duties until a successor was selected. Both statements are correct.
According to IMD, how long did the totality of the lunar eclipse of 7–8 September 2025 last?
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Correct answer: A — 1 hour 23 minutes
IMD said totality lasted from 23:00 IST on 7 September to 00:23 IST on 8 September, a duration of 1 hour 23 minutes; the whole eclipse lasted 3 hours 30 minutes.
As per IMD, when will the next lunar eclipse visible from India occur after the one of 7–8 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3 March 2026
IMD said the next lunar eclipse visible from India will be on 3 March 2026, and it will be a total lunar eclipse.
Which unit of the India Meteorological Department issued the official press release on the total lunar eclipse of September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Positional Astronomical Centre, Kolkata
The press release was issued by IMD's Positional Astronomical Centre, Kolkata, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Who won the US Open 2025 women's singles title?
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Correct answer: D — Aryna Sabalenka
Aryna Sabalenka beat Amanda Anisimova 6-3, 7-6 (3) in the final to retain her title.
Aryna Sabalenka, who won the US Open 2025, represents which country?
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Correct answer: A — Belarus
AP describes Aryna Sabalenka as being from Belarus.
Consider the following statements about Aryna Sabalenka's US Open 2025 win: 1. It was her fourth Grand Slam singles title. 2. She became the first woman since Serena Williams in 2014 to win back-to-back US Open titles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
AP and the BBC reported it was her fourth major and her second straight US Open; the BBC said she was the first woman to retain the title since Serena Williams in 2014. Both statements are correct.
Which Indian naval ship visited Papua New Guinea for its 50th Independence Day celebrations, with the Indian Navy Band performing at the Port Moresby Military Tattoo?
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Correct answer: A — INS Kadmatt
The Indian Navy Band was embarked on INS Kadmatt for the visit to Papua New Guinea.
During INS Kadmatt's visit to Papua New Guinea in September 2025, the crew paid homage at which war cemetery?
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Correct answer: D — Bomana War Cemetery
The crew paid homage at the Bomana War Cemetery, honouring fallen WWII soldiers including many Indians.
What was the theme of World Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Day 2025, observed by DEPwD on 7 September?
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Correct answer: B — Family: The Heart of Care
DEPwD observed the day with the theme 'Family: The Heart of Care'.
President Emmanuel Macron accepted India's invitation to which summit, to be hosted by India in February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — AI Impact Summit
PM Modi thanked President Macron for accepting the invitation to the AI Impact Summit hosted by India in February 2026.
Which roadmap guiding the India–France Strategic Partnership was mentioned in the Modi–Macron call of 6 September 2025, along with the Indo-Pacific and Defence Industrial Roadmaps?
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Correct answer: C — Horizon 2047 Roadmap
The leaders reaffirmed commitment in line with the Horizon 2047 Roadmap, the Indo-Pacific Roadmap and the Defence Industrial Roadmap.
Which conflict did PM Modi and President Macron discuss during their call on 6 September 2025, with India reiterating support for a peaceful resolution?
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Correct answer: A — The conflict in Ukraine
The leaders exchanged views on recent efforts to end the conflict in Ukraine.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Macron telephone call of 6 September 2025: 1. The leaders reviewed cooperation in sectors including defence, science, technology and space. 2. The leaders announced a new India–France free trade agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PIB release says the leaders assessed cooperation across economic, defence, science, technology and space sectors; it does not mention any free trade agreement. So only statement 1 is correct.
How did PM Modi describe the India–US relationship while reciprocating President Trump's sentiments on 6 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Comprehensive and Global Strategic Partnership
PM Modi said India and the US have a very positive and forward-looking Comprehensive and Global Strategic Partnership.
On 6 September 2025, PM Modi said he 'deeply appreciates and fully reciprocates' the sentiments of which leader about bilateral ties?
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Correct answer: A — Donald Trump
PM Modi said he deeply appreciates and fully reciprocates President Trump's sentiments and positive assessment of India–US ties.
Where was the SCO Trade Ministers' Meeting held on 6 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vladivostok
The SCO Trade Ministers' Meeting was held in Vladivostok on 6 September 2025.
According to India's statement at the SCO Trade Ministers' Meeting in September 2025, the SCO accounts for what share of global trade?
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Correct answer: A — 17.2%
India noted the SCO accounts for 42% of the world's population and 17.2% of global trade.
At the SCO Trade Ministers' Meeting in September 2025, India sought a permanent solution on 'Public Stockholding (PSH)'. In WTO negotiations, PSH relates to:
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Correct answer: B — Public stockholding of food grains for food security purposes
India called for a permanent solution on Public Stockholding (PSH) for food security purposes, along with effective special and differential treatment.
Who represented the Union Commerce Minister at the SCO Trade Ministers' Meeting in Vladivostok on 6 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Amitabh Kumar, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce
Amitabh Kumar, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, represented the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry.
Under IEPFA's September 2025 proposal for simplified documentation, what is the claim value limit for demat securities?
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Correct answer: D — Up to ₹15 lakh
The proposals would apply to claims up to ₹5 lakh (physical securities), ₹15 lakh (demat securities) and dividends up to ₹10,000.
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
IEPFA was established on 7 September 2016 under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
In which year was the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) established?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
IEPFA was established on 7 September 2016 under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Who was elected Prime Minister of Thailand by the House of Representatives on 5 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Anutin Charnvirakul
Bhumjaithai leader Anutin Charnvirakul won 311 votes to become Prime Minister.
Anutin Charnvirakul, elected Thailand's Prime Minister in September 2025, leads which party?
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Correct answer: B — Bhumjaithai Party
Anutin is the leader of the Bhumjaithai Party; his rival Chaikasem Nitisiri was Pheu Thai's candidate.
Anutin Charnvirakul succeeded which Thai Prime Minister, who had been dismissed by court order?
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Correct answer: A — Paetongtarn Shinawatra
AP reported Anutin succeeds Paetongtarn Shinawatra, dismissed as prime minister by court order the previous week.
Consider the following statements about Thailand's prime ministerial vote of 5 September 2025: 1. Anutin Charnvirakul won 311 votes against a majority threshold of 247. 2. Anutin was formally appointed by parliament itself, with no role for the King. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Anutin won 311 votes, above the 247 needed. AP reported he would take office after formal appointment by King Maha Vajiralongkorn, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which institution topped the Overall category of the NIRF India Rankings 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras retained first position in the Overall category for the seventh consecutive year (2019–2025).
Which institution topped the Universities category in NIRF India Rankings 2025 for the tenth consecutive year?
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Correct answer: A — IISc Bengaluru
IISc Bengaluru topped the Universities category for the tenth consecutive year (2016–2025).
Which new category was introduced in the NIRF India Rankings in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sustainable Development Goals
The Sustainable Development Goals category was added in 2025; Open and Skill Universities were added in 2024 and Innovation in 2023.
Consider the following statements about the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): 1. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Education in September 2015. 2. In the 2025 rankings, IIT Madras was first in Engineering for the tenth consecutive year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
NIRF was launched in September 2015, the first rankings came out in 2016, and IIT Madras has topped Engineering every year from 2016 to 2025. Both statements are correct.
Which Singaporean Prime Minister paid an official visit to India from 2 to 4 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Lawrence Wong
Prime Minister Lawrence Wong paid an official visit to India from 2 to 4 September 2025.
Under the India–Singapore CSP roadmap of September 2025, a National Centre of Excellence on Advanced Manufacturing is to be jointly developed in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai
The two sides will jointly develop a National Centre of Excellence in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, on Advanced Manufacturing.
India–Singapore relations were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership during which visit?
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Correct answer: A — PM Modi's visit to Singapore in September 2024
The leaders recalled the agreement to elevate ties to a CSP during PM Modi's official visit to Singapore in September 2024.
Consider the following statements about the India–Singapore Joint Statement of 4 September 2025: 1. 2025 marks the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations between the two countries. 2. The two sides agreed to work towards a cooperation framework under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Joint Statement notes the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and commits to work towards a bilateral cooperation framework under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement. Both statements are correct.
Fast-track mergers, whose scope was widened by the MCA in September 2025, are governed by which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
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Correct answer: C — Section 233
Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for fast-track mergers through Central Government approval.
Under Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, the Central Government's power to approve fast-track mergers is delegated to:
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Correct answer: A — Regional Directors
The release says fast-track mergers are approved by the Central Government, delegated to Regional Directors.
Consider the following statements about the September 2025 amendment widening fast-track mergers: 1. Before the amendment, Section 233 already allowed mergers between two or more small companies. 2. The amendment allows fast-track mergers of subsidiaries of the same holding company even where the transferor company is listed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Section 233(1) already covered small companies and holding–wholly owned subsidiary mergers. The new class for fellow subsidiaries applies only where the transferor company is not listed, so statement 2 is wrong.
According to NITI Aayog's pulses report of September 2025, India's import dependence on pulses fell from 29% in 2015–16 to what level by 2022–23?
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Correct answer: B — 10.4%
Production rose 59.4% to 26.06 MT by 2022–23, reducing import dependence from 29% to 10.4%.
NITI Aayog's report on pulses (September 2025) recommends 'horizontal expansion'. This refers to:
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Correct answer: B — Increasing area under pulses, e.g. by using rice fallow lands
Horizontal expansion aims to increase area under pulses by using untapped land such as rice fallows and intercropping; vertical expansion focuses on yields.
Consider the following statements based on NITI Aayog's pulses report of September 2025: 1. About 80% of India's pulse production depends on rainfed areas. 2. With focused strategies, domestic pulse supply could reach 48.44 MT by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The report says nearly 80% of production depends on rainfed areas, and that focused strategies could take supply to 48.44 MT by 2030. Both statements are correct.
Who is the President of the European Council who held a joint telephone call with PM Modi on 4 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — António Costa
PM Modi held a joint call with European Council President António Costa and European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen.
Which connectivity corridor's implementation was reaffirmed in PM Modi's joint call with EU leaders on 4 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — IMEEC
The leaders reaffirmed commitment to an early India–EU FTA and implementation of the IMEEC corridor.
During the joint call of 4 September 2025, PM Modi invited the EU leaders to India for:
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Correct answer: B — The next India–EU Summit
The PIB release says the Prime Minister invited the two leaders to India for the next India–EU Summit.
What is the outlay of the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved by the Union Cabinet on 3 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,500 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme to develop critical mineral recycling capacity.
The critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved in September 2025 is part of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — National Critical Mineral Mission
The scheme is part of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), aimed at domestic capacity and supply chain resilience in critical minerals.
What share of the critical mineral recycling scheme's outlay is earmarked for small and new recyclers, including start-ups?
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Correct answer: D — One-third
One-third of the scheme outlay has been earmarked for small, new recyclers including start-ups.
Consider the following statements about the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme approved in September 2025: 1. Units engaged only in black mass production are eligible for incentives. 2. The total incentive per large entity is capped at ₹50 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The scheme covers only the value chain involved in actual extraction of critical minerals, not black mass production alone, so statement 1 is wrong. Total incentive is capped at ₹50 crore for large entities and ₹25 crore for small ones.
Under the two-rate GST structure approved by the 56th GST Council, what are the standard rate and the merit rate?
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Correct answer: B — 18% and 5%
The Council rationalised the four-tier structure into a two-rate 'Simple Tax' with a standard rate of 18% and a merit rate of 5%.
What special de-merit rate did the 56th GST Council approve for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: D — 40%
Alongside the 18% and 5% rates, the Council approved a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
From which date did the GST rate changes on services recommended by the 56th GST Council take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 22 September 2025
The changes in GST rates on services, and on all goods except pan masala, gutkha, cigarettes and other tobacco products, were to be implemented from 22 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about the decisions of the 56th GST Council: 1. All individual life and health insurance policies were exempted from GST. 2. GST on small cars and motorcycles of up to 350cc was reduced from 28% to 18%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Council exempted all individual life insurance (term, ULIP, endowment) and individual health insurance policies, and cut GST on small cars and motorcycles up to 350cc from 28% to 18%.
To correct the inverted duty structure in the manmade textile sector, the 56th GST Council reduced GST on manmade fibre from 18% to:
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Correct answer: B — 5%
The Council corrected the long-pending inverted duty structure by reducing GST on manmade fibre from 18% to 5% and on manmade yarn from 12% to 5%.
Which German minister met PM Modi on 3 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Johann Wadephul
PM Modi met German Foreign Minister Johann Wadephul on 3 September 2025.
In 2025, India and Germany are celebrating how many years of their Strategic Partnership?
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Correct answer: D — 25 years
PM Modi said India and Germany are celebrating 25 years of Strategic Partnership.
On which date was the Union Public Service Commission established, according to the UPSC centenary announcement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 1926
UPSC Chairman Dr. Ajay Kumar recalled that UPSC was established on 1 October 1926.
UPSC's 'Pratibha Setu' portal is meant for:
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Correct answer: B — Candidates who reached the interview stage but did not make the final list
Through Pratibha Setu, candidates who reached the interview stage but could not make the final list get recruitment opportunities in other organisations.
Consider the following statements about UPSC's centenary plans announced in September 2025: 1. The centenary year runs from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026. 2. The proposed Centre of Excellence will be a repository of best practices of UPSC only, excluding State PSCs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The centenary year runs from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026. The proposed CoE will be a repository of best practices of both UPSC and the State PSCs, so statement 2 is wrong.
The Quarterly Bulletin of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (QBUSE), first released in September 2025, is the quarterly edition of which survey?
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Correct answer: C — Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises
QBUSE is the quarterly edition of the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).
According to the first QBUSE, employment in the unincorporated sector in January–March 2025 was:
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Correct answer: D — 13.13 crore
Employment crossed 13 crore for the first time in January–March 2025, reaching 13.13 crore.
Consider the following statements based on the first QBUSE released in September 2025: 1. The number of unincorporated establishments was higher in April–June 2025 than in January–March 2025. 2. Female workers accounted for over 28% of total employment in both quarters. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Establishments rose from 7.85 crore (January–March) to 7.94 crore (April–June 2025), and women made up over 28% of employment in both quarters. Both statements are correct.
China's military parade in Beijing on 3 September 2025 marked which anniversary?
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Correct answer: B — 80th anniversary of the end of World War II
The parade marked 80 years since Japan's defeat and the end of World War II.
Which two leaders flanked Xi Jinping at the Beijing military parade of 3 September 2025, in the first such gathering of the three countries' leaders?
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Correct answer: A — Vladimir Putin and Kim Jong Un
Reuters reported that Russia's Vladimir Putin and North Korea's Kim Jong Un flanked Xi in the first such gathering of the three countries' leaders.
At the Beijing parade of 3 September 2025, Xi Jinping said the world faced a choice between:
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Correct answer: D — Peace and war
Reuters reported that Xi warned the world was facing a choice between peace or war in his keynote speech.