REET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What net addition of members did EPFO record in July 2025, as per data released on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21.04 lakh
EPFO recorded a net addition of 21.04 lakh members; 9.79 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in July 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — 61.06%
5.98 lakh of the 9.79 lakh new subscribers – 61.06% – were aged 18–25.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's payroll data for July 2025: 1. The net addition of 21.04 lakh members was 5.55% higher than in July 2024. 2. About 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined EPFO. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the net addition of 21.04 lakh was up 5.55% year-on-year, and about 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined.
The Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025, launched on 23 September 2025, is aimed at which group?
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Correct answer: D — School students
It is a nationwide innovation movement for school students, organised by DoSEL with AIM and AICTE.
Under the GST rate structure that took effect on 22 September 2025, what are the Merit Rate and the Standard Rate?
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Correct answer: A — 5% and 18%
The 56th GST Council recommended a two-rate structure with a Merit Rate of 5% and a Standard Rate of 18%.
What special de-merit GST rate did the 56th GST Council recommend for a select few goods and services?
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Correct answer: C — 40%
Alongside the 5% and 18% rates, the Council recommended a special de-merit rate of 40% for a select few goods and services.
Under the GST reforms, the GST on hotel stays priced below ₹7,500 per day was changed to:
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Correct answer: B — 5% (without input tax credit)
GST on hotel stays below ₹7,500 a day was reduced from 12% to 5% without input tax credit.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council decisions: 1. The GST rate on coal was reduced from 18% to 5%. 2. GST on buses with a seating capacity of 10 or more was raised from 18% to 28%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the GST on coal was raised from 5% to 18% (with the ₹400 per tonne compensation cess removed), and GST on buses with 10+ seats was cut from 28% to 18%.
Consider the following statements about the 56th GST Council: 1. The meeting was chaired by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. 2. It recommended exempting all individual life and health insurance policies from GST. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Nirmala Sitharaman chaired the 56th meeting, which exempted all individual life and health insurance policies from GST.
In which city did India and Morocco sign an MoU on defence cooperation on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rabat
The MoU was signed in Rabat, where India will also open a Defence Wing at its embassy.
Consider the following statements about the India–Morocco defence MoU of 22 September 2025: 1. A new Defence Wing will be opened at the Embassy of India in Rabat. 2. The MoU covers cooperation in counter-terrorism and cyber defence. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India will open a Defence Wing in Rabat, and the MoU covers areas including counter-terrorism and cyber defence.
To which Russian republic did the holy relics of Lord Buddha travel for a first exposition in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kalmykia
The relics travelled to the Republic of Kalmykia for a first exposition, during the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista.
What is the theme of the 3rd International Buddhist Forum in Elista, where Buddha's relics from India were exhibited?
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Correct answer: C — Buddhism in the New Millennium
The forum's theme is "Buddhism in the New Millennium".
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in August 2025 over August 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 6.3%
The index grew 6.3% in August 2025; 3.7% was July's final figure and 2.8% the April–August cumulative growth.
Consider the following statements about the core industries data for August 2025: 1. The eight core industries account for 40.27% of the weight of items in the IIP. 2. Crude oil and natural gas both recorded positive growth. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the eight core industries make up 40.27% of the IIP weight, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
Which of the eight core industries recorded 11.4% growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Coal
Coal output grew 11.4% in August 2025, while crude oil (−1.2%) and natural gas (−2.2%) declined.
How many additional LPG connections under PMUY were approved for FY 2025-26 on 22 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25 lakh
The Government approved 25 lakh additional PMUY connections for FY 2025-26.
With the 25 lakh additional connections, the total number of PMUY connections will rise to:
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Correct answer: C — 10.58 crore
The total number of PMUY connections will rise to 10.58 crore.
Consider the following statements about the additional Ujjwala connections approved in September 2025: 1. The cost per connection is ₹3,000. 2. The ₹300 targeted subsidy applies to up to 12 refills a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the cost is ₹2,050 per connection, and the ₹300 subsidy is for up to 9 refills a year.
The Adi Yuva Fellowship and Adi Karmayogi Volunteers Programme, launched on 22 September 2025, come under which campaign?
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Correct answer: C — Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan
Both were launched under the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, which PM Modi inaugurated on 17 September 2025.
By what margin did India beat Pakistan in their Asia Cup 2025 Super Four match in Dubai on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 wickets
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): India beat Pakistan by 6 wickets, reaching the target of 172 with seven balls remaining.
Which Indian batter scored 74 off 39 balls in India's Asia Cup Super Four win over Pakistan on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Abhishek Sharma
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek Sharma scored 74 off 39 balls, including six fours and five sixes.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan Asia Cup Super Four match of 21 September 2025: 1. Abhishek Sharma and Shubman Gill put on 105 runs for the first wicket. 2. Pakistan set India a target of 172. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ESPN and Reuters (21 Sep 2025): Abhishek and Gill added 105 for the first wicket, and India chased down a target of 172, so both statements are correct.
Which of the following groups of countries formally recognised the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements?
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Correct answer: A — UK, Canada and Australia
The UK, Canada and Australia announced formal recognition of the State of Palestine on 21 September 2025 in coordinated statements.
The UN conference on the two-state solution, ahead of which the UK, Canada and Australia recognised Palestine in September 2025, was co-chaired by:
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Correct answer: C — France and Saudi Arabia
The conference was co-chaired by France and Saudi Arabia.
Consider the following statements about the recognitions of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK recognised Palestinian statehood over provisional borders based on the 1967 lines with equal land swaps. 2. Portugal also announced recognition on the same day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the UK Foreign Office described recognition over provisional borders based on 1967 lines with equal land swaps, and Portugal announced recognition the same day.
Consider the following statements about the recognition of Palestine on 21 September 2025: 1. The UK and Canada became the first G7 members to recognise the State of Palestine. 2. The US State Department welcomed the recognitions as a step towards peace. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the UK and Canada were the first G7 members to take the step, while a US State Department spokesperson dismissed the move as "performative".
In his address to the nation on 21 September 2025, what did PM Modi call the beginning of the next-generation GST reforms?
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Correct answer: D — GST Bachat Utsav (savings festival)
The Prime Minister said a 'GST savings festival' (GST Bachat Utsav) would begin from 22 September.
According to PM Modi's address of 21 September 2025, what share of goods earlier taxed at 12% GST moved to the 5% rate?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
The Prime Minister said 99%, i.e. nearly 100%, of goods earlier taxed at 12% had come under the 5% rate.
PM Modi said that the income tax and GST relief decisions taken in one year would save people more than:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2.5 lakh crore
Combining income tax and GST relief, the Prime Minister said people would save more than ₹2.5 lakh crore.
In his address of 21 September 2025, PM Modi said income up to what amount had been made tax-free this year?
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Correct answer: B — ₹12 lakh
The Prime Minister said the government made income up to ₹12 lakh tax-free this year.
At how many locations were the 'Nasha Mukt Yuva for Viksit Bharat' youth summits held on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2,000+
The youth summits were held at more than 2,000 locations as part of Seva Pakhwada.
Which two pledges did young people take at the 'Nasha Mukt Yuva for Viksit Bharat' youth summits on 21 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nasha Mukt Pledge and Swadeshi Bharat Pledge
Young people took the Nasha Mukt Pledge and the Swadeshi Bharat Pledge.
According to Amit Shah in Jodhpur on 21 September 2025, how many airports were made accessible to persons with disabilities under the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan?
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Correct answer: B — 90
Amit Shah said 1,314 central government buildings and 90 airports were made accessible under the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan.
According to Amit Shah in Jodhpur on 21 September 2025, how many central government buildings had been made accessible to persons with disabilities under the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan?
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Correct answer: A — 1,314
PIB (21 Sep 2025): under the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan, 1,314 central government buildings and 90 airports were made accessible to persons with disabilities.
In which feature of the Indian Ocean did India secure exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides under a contract announced on 20 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Carlsberg Ridge
The new 15-year ISA contract covers 10,000 sq km of the Carlsberg Ridge.
With which body did India's Ministry of Earth Sciences sign the contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: D — International Seabed Authority
The 15-year contract was signed between the Ministry of Earth Sciences and the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
What is the duration of India's new ISA contract for polymetallic sulphide exploration in the Carlsberg Ridge?
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Correct answer: A — 15 years
The new contract runs for 15 years and covers 10,000 sq km.
Consider the following statements: 1. India is the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphide exploration. 2. India's other PMS contract covers the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: with the Carlsberg Ridge contract India became the first country with two ISA PMS contracts, the other covering the Central Indian Ridge and Southwest Indian Ridge.
India was designated a 'Pioneer Investor' by virtue of being the first country to receive an area in international waters for exploration of:
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Correct answer: D — Polymetallic nodules
India was the first country to receive an area for polymetallic nodule exploration in international waters and was designated a "Pioneer Investor".
LEADS 2025, launched by Piyush Goyal on 20 September 2025, benchmarks the performance of States and UTs in:
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Correct answer: C — Logistics
LEADS stands for Logistics Ease Across Different States; the 2025 edition benchmarks logistics performance across States and UTs.
The Guidebook on Mapping of HSN Codes released by DPIIT in September 2025 allocates 12,167 HSN codes to how many ministries and departments?
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Correct answer: A — 31
The guidebook allocates 12,167 HSN codes to 31 ministries and departments of the Government of India.
Consider the following statements about the initiatives launched on 20 September 2025: 1. Logistics Data Bank 2.0 was developed by the Asian Development Bank. 2. Integrated State and City Logistics Plans under SMILE begin in 20 cities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: LDB 2.0 was developed by NICDC Logistics Data Services (ADB supported IPRS 3.0 and SMILE), and the SMILE plans begin in eight cities across eight states.
On which date was the Make in India initiative launched, whose decade was marked in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 25 September 2014
Piyush Goyal said the Prime Minister introduced Make in India on 25 September 2014.
The Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) 3.0, launched in September 2025, was developed by DPIIT with the support of:
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Correct answer: C — Asian Development Bank
IPRS 3.0 was developed by DPIIT with support from the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
Under the US proclamation of 19 September 2025, what payment must accompany H-1B petitions for the restriction on entry not to apply?
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Correct answer: A — $100,000
The proclamation restricts entry of H-1B specialty-occupation workers except where petitions are accompanied or supplemented by a payment of $100,000.
For how long does the H-1B entry restriction in the US proclamation of September 2025 remain in force, absent extension?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
The restriction expires 12 months after its effective date of 21 September 2025, unless extended.
Which provisions of the US Immigration and Nationality Act did the H-1B proclamation of 19 September 2025 invoke?
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Correct answer: D — Sections 212(f) and 215(a)
The restriction on entry was imposed pursuant to sections 212(f) and 215(a) of the INA.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the US H-1B proclamation: 1. The MEA said the measure is likely to have humanitarian consequences by way of disruption caused for families. 2. The MEA said the full implications were being studied by all concerned, including Indian industry. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the implications were being studied, including by Indian industry, and that the measure was likely to have humanitarian consequences for families.
Where was the 28th Universal Postal Union Congress held, at which India was re-elected to the UPU's Council of Administration and Postal Operations Council?
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Correct answer: A — Dubai
India was re-elected to both councils at the 28th UPU Congress held in Dubai, UAE.
Since which year has India been a member of the Universal Postal Union?
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Correct answer: C — 1876
India has been a member of the UPU since 1876.
Where did the third round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations conclude on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Queenstown
The third round, held from 15 to 19 September 2025, concluded in Queenstown, New Zealand.
When were the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations formally launched?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was formally launched on 16 March 2025 at a meeting between Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Trade Minister Todd McClay.
What was India's bilateral merchandise trade with New Zealand in 2024–25, as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — USD 1.3 billion
India–New Zealand merchandise trade was USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, growth of nearly 49%.
To what level did Japan's R&I upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB+
R&I upgraded India to 'BBB+' from 'BBB', retaining a Stable outlook.
Which agency upgraded India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025, before R&I's September upgrade?
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Correct answer: D — S&P
S&P upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB-' in August 2025; Morningstar DBRS upgraded India to 'BBB' from 'BBB (low)' in May 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's sovereign rating upgrades in 2025: 1. R&I's upgrade in September 2025 was the third upgrade of India by a sovereign rating agency that year. 2. R&I changed India's outlook from Stable to Positive. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: it was the third upgrade of 2025, and R&I retained the Stable outlook while raising the rating to BBB+.
Where will the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 be held?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The India-AI Impact Summit 2026 will be held on 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which three 'Sutras' guide the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet, Progress
The Summit is guided by the principles or Sutras of People, Planet and Progress.
Which emblem forms the core identity of the official logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
The logo's identity is the Ashoka Chakra, an emblem of ethical governance and constitutional values, with neural network flares radiating outward.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 announcements of 18 September 2025: 1. The Summit is the first to be hosted by a Global South nation. 2. Eight foundation model projects were launched under the IndiaAI Foundation Models pillar, selected from about 506 proposals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. MeitY said the Summit is being hosted for the first time by a Global South nation, and eight foundation model projects selected from about 506 proposals were launched.
After seven natural sites were added in September 2025, how many Indian properties are on UNESCO's Tentative List of World Heritage Sites?
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Correct answer: A — 69
The inclusion of seven natural sites raised India's count on the Tentative List from 62 to 69 properties.
Which cave serves as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age of the Holocene Epoch, as cited in the UNESCO Tentative List addition of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mawmluh Cave
The Meghalayan Age Caves, particularly Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch.
The Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam natural arch are features of which site added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tirumala Hills
Tirumala Hills in Andhra Pradesh feature the Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam (natural arch), representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth's history.
Consider the following pairs of sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025 and their states: 1. Naga Hill Ophiolite — Nagaland 2. Erra Matti Dibbalu — Kerala Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct. Naga Hill Ophiolite is in Nagaland, but Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills) is near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh; the Kerala site is Varkala Cliffs.
Consider the following statements about UNESCO's Tentative List as described in the Ministry of Culture release of 18 September 2025: 1. Inclusion in the Tentative List is a prerequisite for a site to be nominated to the World Heritage List. 2. After the September 2025 additions, cultural properties make up the largest share of India's Tentative List. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Under UNESCO's protocol, Tentative List inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, and India's 69 properties comprise 49 cultural, 17 natural and 3 mixed sites.
What was the last date for eligible central government employees and past retirees under NPS to opt for the Unified Pension Scheme?
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Correct answer: D — 30 September 2025
The Department of Financial Services said the last date to opt for UPS is 30 September 2025.
Under the DFS Office Memorandum of 25 August 2025, at least how long before superannuation must a UPS subscriber exercise the one-time switch to NPS?
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Correct answer: A — One year
The switch must be exercised at least one year before superannuation or three months before voluntary retirement, whichever is earlier.
With whom did Prime Minister Narendra Modi hold a telephone conversation on 18 September 2025 as head of Nepal's Interim Government?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
PM Modi spoke with Sushila Karki, Prime Minister of the Interim Government of Nepal, and congratulated her on her appointment.
For which upcoming occasion did PM Modi extend felicitations to Nepal during his call with PM Sushila Karki on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Day of Nepal
PM Modi extended felicitations on the occasion of the upcoming National Day of Nepal.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Karki telephone call of 18 September 2025: 1. PM Modi extended condolences for the loss of life during the recent protests in Nepal. 2. PM Modi conveyed India's full support to Nepal in its efforts towards restoring peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the PMO release records condolences for the loss of life during the protests and India's full support for restoring peace and stability in Nepal.
Which UAE institution's Managing Director co-chaired the 13th meeting of the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Abu Dhabi Investment Authority
Sheikh Hamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, Managing Director of the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA), co-chaired the meeting with Piyush Goyal.
In which year was the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments established?
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Correct answer: B — 2013
The Joint Task Force was established in 2013 as a forum for strengthening economic ties and resolving investor issues.
Consider the following statements based on the 13th India-UAE Joint Task Force meeting: 1. India-UAE bilateral non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in the first half of 2025. 2. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was implemented in May 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in H1 2025 (+34%), but the CEPA was implemented in May 2022, not 2024.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise that concluded on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — INS Trikand
The Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile stealth frigate INS Trikand.
At which Greek naval base was the harbour phase of the maiden India–Greece maritime exercise held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Salamis
The harbour phase was held from 13 to 17 September 2025 at Salamis Naval Base.
Consider the following statements about the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise of September 2025: 1. Its sea phase included joint anti-submarine warfare and cross-deck helicopter operations. 2. Its pre-sail conference was held aboard INS Trikand. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The sea phase included joint ASW and cross-deck helicopter operations, but the pre-sail conference was held aboard HS Themistokles, an Elli-class frigate of the Hellenic Navy.
What is the name of the new EPFO facility announced in September 2025 that lets members view a summary of their PF passbook within the member portal?
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Correct answer: D — Passbook Lite
EPFO introduced 'Passbook Lite' in its member portal for a simple summarised view of contributions, withdrawals and balance.
In the EPFO reforms of September 2025, 'Annexure K', made available online to members, refers to which document?
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Correct answer: A — Transfer Certificate for PF transfer
EPFO enabled online access to Annexure K, the Transfer Certificate, for transparency in PF transfers.
In which city did Saudi Arabia and Pakistan sign the Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Riyadh
Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman and PM Shehbaz Sharif signed the agreement in Riyadh during Sharif's state visit.
What is the core clause of the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both
The joint statement said the agreement states that any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan defence pact: 1. The MEA said the Government was aware that the development, which formalises a long-standing arrangement, had been under consideration. 2. The MEA said India would study its implications for national security as well as for regional and global stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the Government was aware the pact had been under consideration and that India would study its implications for national security and for regional and global stability.
Which ministry holds regulatory and stewardship responsibility for geothermal energy under the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Under the policy, regulatory and stewardship responsibilities for geothermal energy rest with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
How many geothermal projects, including pilot and resource assessment projects, had MNRE sanctioned as of the notification of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Five
MNRE has sanctioned five projects in the sector, including pilot initiatives and resource assessment projects.
Consider the following statements about the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025): 1. It promotes R&D in retrofitting abandoned oil wells and Enhanced/Advanced Geothermal Systems. 2. It covers direct uses such as district heating and Ground Source Heat Pumps besides power generation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the policy promotes R&D in hybrid geothermal-solar plants, retrofitting abandoned oil wells and EGS/AGS, and covers direct uses like district heating and GSHPs alongside electricity generation.
Under which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did the ECI revise guidelines for EVM ballot papers in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rule 49B
The ECI revised the existing guidelines under Rule 49B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, for the design and printing of EVM ballot papers.
Under the revised ECI guidelines of September 2025, what colour of paper is to be used for EVM ballot papers in Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Pink
For Assembly elections, pink-coloured paper of specified RGB values is to be used; ballot papers are printed on 70 GSM paper.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's revised EVM ballot paper guidelines of September 2025: 1. Candidates' photographs will be printed in colour, with the face occupying three-fourths of the photo space. 2. Serial numbers of candidates and NOTA will be printed in Devanagari numerals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Photographs will be in colour with the face covering three-fourths of the space, but serial numbers will be printed in the international form of Indian numerals, not Devanagari numerals.
What was the theme of World Ozone Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — From science to global action
The theme for World Ozone Day 2025 was 'From science to global action', emphasising how scientific discovery can guide policy and international cooperation.
According to UNDP's Resident Representative at the 31st World Ozone Day event, what reduction target in HCFC production and consumption has India achieved?
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Correct answer: D — 67.5%
UNDP Resident Representative Angela Lusigi said India achieved the 67.5% reduction target in HCFC production and consumption and completely phased out HCFC-141b.
World Ozone Day on 16 September commemorates the signing of which international agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Montreal Protocol
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
Consider the following statements about the ozone treaties: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol were the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification. 2. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed in 2016, deals with the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. On 16 September 2009 the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification, and the Kigali Amendment agreed on 15 October 2016 provides for the phase-down of HFCs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985. 2. Under the Kigali Amendment, India's HFC phase-down is to be implemented from 2028 onwards. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Vienna Convention was adopted and signed on 22 March 1985, and MoEFCC noted that the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment is to be implemented from 2028 onwards.