MBA Entrance (XAT, CMAT, MAT) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
To what level did India and Italy elevate their relations during PM Modi's visit to Italy in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Special Strategic Partnership
The India-Italy Joint Declaration of 20 May 2026 states that the two leaders decided to elevate relations to a Special Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements about the India-Italy Joint Declaration (May 2026): 1. The two sides aim to reach €20 billion in bilateral trade by 2029. 2. The Joint Strategic Action Plan 2025-2029 was adopted at the G7 Summit in Italy in June 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Action Plan was adopted when the leaders met at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024.
Under the May 2026 India-Italy Joint Declaration, which mechanism will review the Joint Strategic Action Plan 2025-29?
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Correct answer: D — A Foreign Ministers-led mechanism
The leaders agreed to establish a Foreign Ministers-led mechanism to review the Action Plan and guide the Special Strategic Partnership.
Which city hosted the 3rd India-Nordic Summit on 19 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Oslo
The summit was hosted by the Prime Minister of Norway; PIB places PM Modi's margin meetings in Oslo.
Into what kind of partnership did India and the Nordic countries decide to shape their relations at the 3rd India-Nordic Summit?
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Correct answer: D — Green Technology and Innovation Strategic Partnership
PM Modi announced that India–Nordic relations would be shaped into a Green Technology and Innovation Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements in the context of the 3rd India-Nordic Summit (May 2026): 1. The India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement has been implemented since October 2025. 2. Sweden is a party to the India–EFTA TEPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: PM Modi named Norway, Iceland and the other EFTA countries as TEPA partners, and Denmark, Finland and Sweden as partners in the India–EU FTA.
To what level did India and Norway elevate their relations on 18 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Green Strategic Partnership
PM Modi and PM Støre agreed in Oslo to elevate ties to a Green Strategic Partnership.
By which year did India and Norway aim to double the value of their current bilateral trade, as agreed in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 2030
The leaders underlined the aim of doubling the value of current trade between India and Norway by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the India–Norway talks of 18 May 2026: 1. The investment commitment under the India–EFTA TEPA cited by the leaders is USD 50 billion. 2. The leaders welcomed Norway joining the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the TEPA investment commitment cited is USD 100 billion, with one million jobs in India. Statement 2 is correct.
Who was the Presiding Officer of the Judges Inquiry Committee that submitted its report on Justice Yashwant Varma in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Aravind Kumar
Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court presided; Justice Shree Chandrashekhar and B.V. Acharya were members.
Under which law was the report of the Judges Inquiry Committee on Justice Yashwant Varma presented in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
The report was presented in accordance with the statutory requirements under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about the Judges Inquiry Committee on Justice Yashwant Varma: 1. The committee was constituted by the Lok Sabha Speaker on 12 August 2025. 2. The committee was presided over by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Presiding Officer was Justice Aravind Kumar, a judge of the Supreme Court.
To what level did India and Sweden elevate their relationship during PM Modi's visit to Sweden in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Strategic Partnership
PM Modi and PM Ulf Kristersson agreed in Gothenburg to elevate India–Sweden ties to the level of Strategic Partnership.
Which document did India and Sweden adopt in May 2026 to operationalise their new partnership?
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Correct answer: C — India-Sweden Joint Action Plan 2026-2030
The two leaders adopted the India-Sweden Joint Action Plan 2026-2030 as the roadmap for the Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements about the India–Sweden talks of May 2026: 1. The relationship was elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. 2. The partnership will be guided by three pillars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership (not Comprehensive), and it rests on four pillars.
The houselisting field operations that began in Rajasthan, Meghalaya, Maharashtra and Jharkhand on 17 May 2026 are part of which exercise?
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Correct answer: B — Phase I of Census 2027
The Houselisting and Housing Census (HLO) is Phase I of Census 2027.
As of 17 May 2026, more than how many households had completed Census self-enumeration?
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Correct answer: D — 1.44 crore
MHA said more than 1.44 crore households had completed self-enumeration across 25 States/UTs.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027 operations as of 17 May 2026: 1. The self-enumeration facility has been introduced for the first time in Census operations. 2. Houselisting operations in Uttar Pradesh were completed between 16 April and 15 May 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: in Uttar Pradesh self-enumeration runs until 21 May and field work from 22 May to 20 June; the 16 April–15 May round covered A&N, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Odisha, Sikkim and Delhi's NDMC and Cantonment areas.
On 17 May 2026 the Census self-enumeration facility opened in which group of States/UTs?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh and Puducherry
Self-enumeration began on 17 May in Gujarat, J&K, Ladakh and Puducherry, open till 31 May 2026.
To what level did India and the Netherlands elevate their relations on 16 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Strategic Partnership
PM Modi and PM Rob Jetten decided in The Hague to elevate India–Netherlands relations to a Strategic Partnership.
At which royal palace did King Willem-Alexander and Queen Máxima host PM Modi on 16 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Huis ten Bosch, The Hague
The Joint Statement says the King and Queen hosted PM Modi at the Royal Palace Huis ten Bosch in The Hague.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's visit to the Netherlands in May 2026: 1. It was PM Modi's first visit to the Netherlands. 2. Under the Strategic Partnership Roadmap, a Foreign Minister-level mechanism will hold annual meetings to review progress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: it was PM Modi's second visit to the Netherlands. Statement 2 is correct as per the Roadmap.
Under the ISPRL–ADNOC MoU signed during PM Modi's UAE visit in May 2026, ADNOC may store up to how much crude oil in India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves?
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Correct answer: C — 30 million barrels
The MoU covers potential ADNOC crude storage in India's SPR of up to 30 million barrels.
During PM Modi's UAE visit in May 2026, Emirates NBD announced a US$3 billion investment in which Indian entity?
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Correct answer: B — RBL Bank
Emirates NBD is to invest US$3 billion in RBL Bank; IHC is to invest US$1 billion in Sammaan Capital and ADIA up to US$1 billion with NIIF.
Consider the following statements about India–UAE relations, as per PIB (May 2026): 1. PM Modi's visit to the UAE in 2015 was the first by an Indian Prime Minister in 34 years. 2. India–UAE bilateral merchandise trade crossed US$100 billion for the first time in FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 2015 visit was the first by an Indian PM in 34 years, and trade reached US$101.25 billion in FY 2025-26.
Which Indian organisation signed a term sheet with UAE's G-42 in May 2026 to set up an 8-exaflop supercomputing cluster?
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Correct answer: D — CDAC
The term sheet for an 8-exaflop super computing cluster is between CDAC, India and G-42, UAE, as part of AI Mission India.
'BIRSA 101', discussed at a workshop in May 2026, is:
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Correct answer: D — India's first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease
BIRSA 101, named after Bhagwan Birsa Munda, is India's first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease.
Which CSIR laboratory is associated with BIRSA 101, the CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease?
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Correct answer: B — CSIR-IGIB, New Delhi
The workshop on BIRSA 101 was organised with CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB) at CSIR-IGIB, New Delhi.
What was India's annual WPI inflation rate (provisional) for April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 8.30%
WPI inflation was 8.30% in April 2026; 3.88% was March, 9.17% primary articles and 24.71% fuel and power.
Which major group of the WPI recorded the highest annual inflation in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Fuel & Power
Fuel & Power inflation was 24.71%, against 9.17% for primary articles, 4.62% for manufactured products and 2.31% for the food index.
Consider the following statements about the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India: 1. The current WPI series has 2011-12 as its base year. 2. DPIIT releases the WPI on the 14th of every month with a time lag of two weeks of the reference month. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in DPIIT's April 2026 WPI release (base year 2011-12; release on the 14th, or the next working day, with a two-week lag).
SIR Phase III of electoral rolls, ordered by the ECI on 14 May 2026, covers about how many electors?
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Correct answer: B — 36.73 crore
Over 3.94 lakh BLOs will go house to house to 36.73 crore electors in SIR Phase III.
Which of the following is NOT covered in SIR Phase III announced by the ECI in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Himachal Pradesh
Phase III covers the whole country except Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, whose schedule will be announced later.
Consider the following statements about the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, Phase III (2026): 1. The ECI ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Enumeration begins first, on 30 May 2026, in Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The ECI order cites Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the house-to-house enumeration starts on 30 May in Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur.
What is the financial outlay of the Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects approved by the Cabinet in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹37,500 crore
The scheme has an outlay of ₹37,500 crore; ₹8,500 crore was the earlier scheme approved in January 2024.
Under the 2026 coal/lignite gasification scheme, the financial incentive for any single project is capped at:
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Correct answer: A — ₹5,000 crore
The cap is ₹5,000 crore per project, ₹9,000 crore per product (except SNG and urea) and ₹12,000 crore per entity group.
Consider the following statements about India's coal gasification push: 1. India has a national target of gasifying 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030. 2. Under the 2026 scheme, the incentive is capped at 20% of the cost of plant and machinery. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The scheme advances the 100 MT-by-2030 target (building on the National Coal Gasification Mission, 2021) and offers up to 20% of plant and machinery cost.
For kharif marketing season 2026-27, which crop got the highest absolute increase in MSP over the previous year?
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Correct answer: C — Sunflower seed
Sunflower seed got the highest increase (₹622 per quintal), followed by cotton (₹557), nigerseed (₹515) and sesamum (₹500).
Under the kharif MSP 2026-27, the expected margin over cost of production is highest for which crop?
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Correct answer: D — Moong
Moong has the highest expected margin (61%), followed by bajra (56%), maize (56%) and tur/arhar (54%).
Consider the following statements about Minimum Support Prices (MSP): 1. Fixing MSP at least at 1.5 times the all-India weighted average cost of production was announced in the Union Budget 2014-15. 2. The MSP of paddy (common) for marketing season 2026-27 is ₹2,441 per quintal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The 1.5-times-cost principle was announced in the Union Budget 2018-19, as the Cabinet release states.
What was the aggregate net profit of public sector banks in FY 2025-26, as announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.98 lakh crore
Aggregate net profit rose 11.1% to a record ₹1.98 lakh crore; ₹3.21 lakh crore was the operating profit and ₹86,971 crore the recoveries.
Consider the following statements about public sector banks as of 31 March 2026: 1. Their gross NPA ratio was 1.93% and net NPA ratio 0.39%. 2. Their aggregate CRAR of 16.6% was above the regulatory requirement of 11.5%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Finance Ministry's FY 2025-26 PSB performance release.
FY 2025-26 marked which consecutive year of aggregate profitability for public sector banks?
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Correct answer: D — Fourth
The record ₹1.98 lakh crore profit marked the fourth consecutive year of aggregate profitability for PSBs.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation (base 2024=100) for April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 3.48%
Retail inflation was 3.48% (provisional) in April 2026; 3.40% was March, 4.20% food inflation and 3.16% urban inflation.
Consider the following statements about the CPI release for April 2026: 1. Food inflation (CFPI) was lower than headline CPI inflation. 2. Prices for the CPI are collected by the NSO from 1,407 urban markets and 1,465 villages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Food inflation (4.20%) was higher than headline CPI inflation (3.48%).
What is the size of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool launched by the Department of Financial Services in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — US$1.5 billion
BMIP is a US$1.5 billion pool with a sovereign guarantee of US$1.4 billion (₹12,980 crore).
Which entity is the pool administrator of the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool?
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Correct answer: D — GIC Re
GIC Re is the pool administrator; policies are issued by domestic member insurers such as New India Assurance.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 come into force nationwide, as notified on 11 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 1 July 2026
The Centre notified that the Act comes into force across all rural areas from 1 July 2026, when MGNREGA, 2005 stands repealed.
How many days of wage employment in a financial year does the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee to an eligible rural household?
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Correct answer: D — 125 days
The Act guarantees 125 days of wage employment a year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.
Consider the following statements about the transition to the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 will stand repealed from the date the new Act comes into force. 2. All existing MGNREGA job cards become invalid on that date and every worker must register afresh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. e-KYC verified MGNREGA job cards remain valid under VB–G RAM G until Gramin Rozgar Guarantee Cards are issued.
Who was appointed as the next Chief of Defence Staff on 9 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd)
Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani (Retd) was appointed CDS, succeeding Gen Anil Chauhan, whose tenure ends on 30 May 2026.
At the time of his appointment as the next Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026, Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was heading which command?
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Correct answer: B — Western Naval Command
Vice Adm Krishna Swaminathan has been Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Naval Command since 31 July 2025.
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, named the next Navy Chief in May 2026, is a specialist in which field?
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Correct answer: D — Communication and Electronic Warfare
Commissioned on 1 July 1987, he is a Communication and Electronic Warfare specialist.
Consider the following statements about the Chief of Defence Staff appointed in May 2026: 1. The Chief of Defence Staff also functions as Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. 2. Lt Gen N. S. Raja Subramani was commissioned into the 8 Garhwal Rifles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The CDS also functions as Secretary, DMA, and Subramani was commissioned into 8 Garhwal Rifles on 14 December 1985.
According to NITI Aayog's school education report of May 2026, India's school education system spans about how many schools and students?
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Correct answer: C — 14.71 lakh schools and over 24.69 crore students
The report says India's school system spans 14.71 lakh schools serving over 24.69 crore students, the largest in the world.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's report 'School Education System in India: Temporal Analysis and Policy Roadmap for Quality Enhancement': 1. It draws on secondary data including UDISE+ 2024-25, PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024 and ASER 2024. 2. It is based on a fresh primary household survey conducted by NITI Aayog in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The report uses secondary data (UDISE+ 2024-25, PARAKH 2024, NAS 2017 and 2021, ASER 2024) and inputs from a February 2025 national workshop, not a primary household survey.
How many major challenges does NITI Aayog's May 2026 school education report identify?
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Correct answer: D — 11
Based on data analysis and stakeholder consultations, the report presents 11 major challenges.
To what level did India and Vietnam elevate their relations during the State Visit of To Lam in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
The two sides elevated ties to an Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership; 2026 marks the 10th anniversary of the earlier Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
The MoU between NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) and Vietnam's NAPAS, signed in May 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: A — Cross-border QR code payment interoperability
The NIPL–NAPAS MoU establishes linkages on cross-border QR code interoperability to enable payments; rare earths were covered by the IREL–ITRRE MoU.
Consider the following statements about the India–Vietnam summit of May 2026: 1. The year 2026 marks the 10th anniversary of the India–Vietnam Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. 2. To Lam visited India as both General Secretary of the Communist Party of Viet Nam and President of Viet Nam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Joint Statement: 2026 is the 10th anniversary of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, and To Lam holds both posts.
Under the Bill approved by the Cabinet in May 2026, the number of Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice of India, will rise to:
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Correct answer: B — 37
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 raises the strength by four, from 33 to 37, excluding the CJI.
The Bill approved in May 2026 to raise the Supreme Court's judge strength amends which law?
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Correct answer: D — The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 amends the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956; Parliament fixes the number by law under Article 124(1).
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 124(1) of the Constitution originally provided for a Chief Justice of India and not more than seven other judges, until Parliament by law prescribed a larger number. 2. Before the 2026 proposal, the Supreme Court's judge strength was last raised from 30 to 33 (excluding the CJI) by an amendment in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Article 124(1) originally fixed the CJI plus up to seven judges; the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019 raised the strength from 30 to 33.
What is the outlay of the Mission for Cotton Productivity approved by the Cabinet in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,659.22 crore
The Cabinet approved ₹5,659.22 crore for the Mission for Cotton Productivity.
What is the implementation period of the Mission for Cotton Productivity?
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Correct answer: A — 2026–27 to 2030–31
The mission covers 2026–27 to 2030–31.
The Mission for Cotton Productivity is aligned with the Government's '5F' vision. What does 5F stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign
The 5F vision is Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.
Under ECLGS 5.0, approved in May 2026, what guarantee coverage does NCGTC provide for MSMEs and for non-MSMEs?
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Correct answer: B — 100% for MSMEs and 90% for non-MSMEs
ECLGS 5.0 provides 100% guarantee cover for MSMEs and 90% for non-MSMEs as well as the airline sector.
How much has been earmarked for airlines under ECLGS 5.0, approved by the Cabinet in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹5,000 crore
₹5,000 crore of the ₹2,55,000 crore additional credit is earmarked for airlines; ₹1,500 crore is the per-airline cap.
Which entity provides the credit guarantee to Member Lending Institutions under ECLGS 5.0?
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Correct answer: A — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC)
Guarantee coverage under ECLGS 5.0 is provided to Member Lending Institutions by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC).
Which Indian space startup built Mission Drishti, launched on 3 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — GalaxEye
Mission Drishti was built by Bengaluru-based startup GalaxEye.
Mission Drishti is described as the world's first OptoSAR satellite. What does it combine on a single platform?
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Correct answer: A — Electro-optical sensors and synthetic aperture radar
Mission Drishti integrates electro-optical and synthetic aperture radar (SAR) sensors on one platform for all-weather, day-and-night imaging.
Aboard which launch vehicle was Mission Drishti launched on 3 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — SpaceX Falcon 9
Mission Drishti was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 from Vandenberg, California.
Consider the following statements about Mission Drishti: 1. The satellite weighs about 190 kg. 2. It was launched from Sriharikota. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the 190-kg satellite was launched from Vandenberg, California, not Sriharikota.
Which organisation developed the indigenous Cell Broadcast System launched on 2 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
CBS was developed by C-DOT under the Department of Telecommunications in collaboration with NDMA and MHA.
The Cell Broadcast System launched in May 2026 is integrated with which CAP-based alert platform?
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Correct answer: C — SACHET
CBS is integrated with the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP)-based SACHET platform for standardised dissemination of alerts.
Consider the following statements about the Cell Broadcast System (CBS) launched in May 2026: 1. Alerts can be geo-targeted down to the level of individual cell towers. 2. Users cannot disable CBS alerts on their phones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: CBS can target individual cell towers or clusters, and its alerts cannot be disabled by users.
Which award for disaster management was presented at the launch of the Cell Broadcast System on 2 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar
Communications Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia presented the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar to individuals and organisations at the launch.
Who was appointed Chairman of Prasar Bharati on 2 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Prasoon Joshi
The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting appointed Prasoon Joshi as Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
Consider the following statements about Prasar Bharati: 1. It was established under the Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India) Act, 1990. 2. It became operational in the same year the Act was passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: Prasar Bharati is a statutory autonomous broadcaster set up under the 1990 Act, but it became operational only in 1997.
Before being appointed Chairman of Prasar Bharati in May 2026, Prasoon Joshi had headed which body since August 2017?
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Correct answer: D — Central Board of Film Certification
Prasoon Joshi had served as Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), Mumbai, since August 2017.
House-to-house Houselisting Operations under Census 2027 began on 1 May 2026 in six States/UTs. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — Rajasthan
HLO began in Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Haryana, Chandigarh, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh; in Rajasthan only the self-enumeration window opened on 1 May.
About how many households had used the Census 2027 self-enumeration facility by 1 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 82 lakh
The Home Ministry said nearly 82 lakh households had availed the self-enumeration facility so far.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. The self-enumeration facility being used in Census 2027 was also offered in the previous Census. 2. Data collected is governed by the Census Act, 1951, and may be shared for individual verification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Self-enumeration has been introduced for the first time in a Census; data is collected under the Census Act, 1948, and remains strictly confidential, used only for statistical purposes and development planning.
On which date was the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by NPCI?
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Correct answer: A — 11 April 2016
UPI was launched on 11 April 2016 by the National Payments Corporation of India under RBI's regulatory oversight.
As per the Finance Ministry's 10-year note, what was UPI's approximate transaction value in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹314 lakh crore
Transaction value rose from ₹0.07 lakh crore in FY 2016–17 to approximately ₹314 lakh crore in FY 2025–26.
Consider the following statements about UPI as of its 10th anniversary in April 2026: 1. Over 700 banks are onboarded on UPI. 2. UPI captures nearly 49% of global real-time payments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Finance Ministry's release of 30 April 2026.
What is the total outlay of the Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Critical Mineral Recycling under the National Critical Mineral Mission?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,500 crore
The scheme has a total outlay of ₹1,500 crore under the National Critical Mineral Mission and was notified on 2 October 2025.
Which institution is the Project Management Agency (PMA) that evaluated proposals under the Critical Mineral Recycling incentive scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre
Proposals were evaluated by the PMA, the Jawaharlal Nehru Aluminium Research Development and Design Centre (JNARDDC).
Consider the following statements about the Critical Mineral Recycling incentive scheme: 1. The scheme covers recovery of critical minerals from lithium-ion batteries, e-waste and industrial scrap. 2. All 58 eligible companies were cleared in a single Executive Committee meeting on 29 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 20 entities were cleared on 30 March 2026 and 38 on 29 April 2026.
As per the NSO 80th Round health survey, coverage under government health insurance/financing schemes in rural areas rose from 12.9% to what level?
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Correct answer: C — 45.5%
Rural coverage rose from 12.9% to 45.5%, while urban coverage rose from 8.9% to 31.8%.
Consider the following statements about the NSO 80th Round Household Social Consumption: Health survey: 1. The survey canvassed more urban households than rural households. 2. Institutional deliveries reached 97.8% in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: 76,296 rural and 63,436 urban households were surveyed. Statement 2 is correct.
According to the NSO 80th Round health survey, what was the median out-of-pocket expenditure for hospitalisation cases at public health facilities?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,100
The Health Ministry said the out-of-pocket expenditure in more than half of hospitalisation cases at public facilities stands at ₹1,100, i.e. the median.