IBPS RRB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Hindustan Copper Limited signed an MoU on critical and strategic minerals with which Maharatna PSU on 19 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Oil India Limited
HCL signed the MoU with Oil India Limited, a Maharatna PSU under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Where will the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 be held?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
The India-AI Impact Summit 2026 will be held on 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Which three 'Sutras' guide the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet, Progress
The Summit is guided by the principles or Sutras of People, Planet and Progress.
Which emblem forms the core identity of the official logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
The logo's identity is the Ashoka Chakra, an emblem of ethical governance and constitutional values, with neural network flares radiating outward.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 announcements of 18 September 2025: 1. The Summit is the first to be hosted by a Global South nation. 2. Eight foundation model projects were launched under the IndiaAI Foundation Models pillar, selected from about 506 proposals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. MeitY said the Summit is being hosted for the first time by a Global South nation, and eight foundation model projects selected from about 506 proposals were launched.
After seven natural sites were added in September 2025, how many Indian properties are on UNESCO's Tentative List of World Heritage Sites?
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Correct answer: A — 69
The inclusion of seven natural sites raised India's count on the Tentative List from 62 to 69 properties.
Which cave serves as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age of the Holocene Epoch, as cited in the UNESCO Tentative List addition of September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mawmluh Cave
The Meghalayan Age Caves, particularly Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch.
The Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam natural arch are features of which site added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tirumala Hills
Tirumala Hills in Andhra Pradesh feature the Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam (natural arch), representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth's history.
Consider the following pairs of sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025 and their states: 1. Naga Hill Ophiolite — Nagaland 2. Erra Matti Dibbalu — Kerala Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct. Naga Hill Ophiolite is in Nagaland, but Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills) is near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh; the Kerala site is Varkala Cliffs.
Consider the following statements about UNESCO's Tentative List as described in the Ministry of Culture release of 18 September 2025: 1. Inclusion in the Tentative List is a prerequisite for a site to be nominated to the World Heritage List. 2. After the September 2025 additions, cultural properties make up the largest share of India's Tentative List. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Under UNESCO's protocol, Tentative List inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, and India's 69 properties comprise 49 cultural, 17 natural and 3 mixed sites.
What was the last date for eligible central government employees and past retirees under NPS to opt for the Unified Pension Scheme?
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Correct answer: D — 30 September 2025
The Department of Financial Services said the last date to opt for UPS is 30 September 2025.
Under the DFS Office Memorandum of 25 August 2025, at least how long before superannuation must a UPS subscriber exercise the one-time switch to NPS?
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Correct answer: A — One year
The switch must be exercised at least one year before superannuation or three months before voluntary retirement, whichever is earlier.
With whom did Prime Minister Narendra Modi hold a telephone conversation on 18 September 2025 as head of Nepal's Interim Government?
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Correct answer: B — Sushila Karki
PM Modi spoke with Sushila Karki, Prime Minister of the Interim Government of Nepal, and congratulated her on her appointment.
For which upcoming occasion did PM Modi extend felicitations to Nepal during his call with PM Sushila Karki on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Day of Nepal
PM Modi extended felicitations on the occasion of the upcoming National Day of Nepal.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Karki telephone call of 18 September 2025: 1. PM Modi extended condolences for the loss of life during the recent protests in Nepal. 2. PM Modi conveyed India's full support to Nepal in its efforts towards restoring peace and stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the PMO release records condolences for the loss of life during the protests and India's full support for restoring peace and stability in Nepal.
Which UAE institution's Managing Director co-chaired the 13th meeting of the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Abu Dhabi Investment Authority
Sheikh Hamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, Managing Director of the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA), co-chaired the meeting with Piyush Goyal.
In which year was the India-UAE High Level Joint Task Force on Investments established?
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Correct answer: B — 2013
The Joint Task Force was established in 2013 as a forum for strengthening economic ties and resolving investor issues.
Consider the following statements based on the 13th India-UAE Joint Task Force meeting: 1. India-UAE bilateral non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in the first half of 2025. 2. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was implemented in May 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Non-oil trade reached nearly US$38 billion in H1 2025 (+34%), but the CEPA was implemented in May 2022, not 2024.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise that concluded on 18 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — INS Trikand
The Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile stealth frigate INS Trikand.
At which Greek naval base was the harbour phase of the maiden India–Greece maritime exercise held in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Salamis
The harbour phase was held from 13 to 17 September 2025 at Salamis Naval Base.
Consider the following statements about the maiden India–Greece bilateral maritime exercise of September 2025: 1. Its sea phase included joint anti-submarine warfare and cross-deck helicopter operations. 2. Its pre-sail conference was held aboard INS Trikand. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The sea phase included joint ASW and cross-deck helicopter operations, but the pre-sail conference was held aboard HS Themistokles, an Elli-class frigate of the Hellenic Navy.
In which city did Saudi Arabia and Pakistan sign the Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement on 17 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Riyadh
Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman and PM Shehbaz Sharif signed the agreement in Riyadh during Sharif's state visit.
What is the core clause of the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement of September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both
The joint statement said the agreement states that any aggression against either country shall be considered an aggression against both.
Consider the following statements about India's official response to the Saudi Arabia–Pakistan defence pact: 1. The MEA said the Government was aware that the development, which formalises a long-standing arrangement, had been under consideration. 2. The MEA said India would study its implications for national security as well as for regional and global stability. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the Government was aware the pact had been under consideration and that India would study its implications for national security and for regional and global stability.
Which ministry holds regulatory and stewardship responsibility for geothermal energy under the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Under the policy, regulatory and stewardship responsibilities for geothermal energy rest with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
How many geothermal projects, including pilot and resource assessment projects, had MNRE sanctioned as of the notification of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Five
MNRE has sanctioned five projects in the sector, including pilot initiatives and resource assessment projects.
Consider the following statements about the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025): 1. It promotes R&D in retrofitting abandoned oil wells and Enhanced/Advanced Geothermal Systems. 2. It covers direct uses such as district heating and Ground Source Heat Pumps besides power generation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the policy promotes R&D in hybrid geothermal-solar plants, retrofitting abandoned oil wells and EGS/AGS, and covers direct uses like district heating and GSHPs alongside electricity generation.
Under which rule of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did the ECI revise guidelines for EVM ballot papers in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rule 49B
The ECI revised the existing guidelines under Rule 49B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, for the design and printing of EVM ballot papers.
Under the revised ECI guidelines of September 2025, what colour of paper is to be used for EVM ballot papers in Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: A — Pink
For Assembly elections, pink-coloured paper of specified RGB values is to be used; ballot papers are printed on 70 GSM paper.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's revised EVM ballot paper guidelines of September 2025: 1. Candidates' photographs will be printed in colour, with the face occupying three-fourths of the photo space. 2. Serial numbers of candidates and NOTA will be printed in Devanagari numerals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Photographs will be in colour with the face covering three-fourths of the space, but serial numbers will be printed in the international form of Indian numerals, not Devanagari numerals.
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs invited public comments in September 2025 on establishing Indian 'MDP' firms. What does MDP stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Multi-Disciplinary Partnership
The MCA invited comments on the establishment of Indian Multi-Disciplinary Partnership (MDP) firms, linked to developing domestic consulting and auditing firms.
What was the theme of World Ozone Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — From science to global action
The theme for World Ozone Day 2025 was 'From science to global action', emphasising how scientific discovery can guide policy and international cooperation.
According to UNDP's Resident Representative at the 31st World Ozone Day event, what reduction target in HCFC production and consumption has India achieved?
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Correct answer: D — 67.5%
UNDP Resident Representative Angela Lusigi said India achieved the 67.5% reduction target in HCFC production and consumption and completely phased out HCFC-141b.
World Ozone Day on 16 September commemorates the signing of which international agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Montreal Protocol
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987.
Consider the following statements about the ozone treaties: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol were the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification. 2. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, agreed in 2016, deals with the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. On 16 September 2009 the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first UN treaties to achieve universal ratification, and the Kigali Amendment agreed on 15 October 2016 provides for the phase-down of HFCs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985. 2. Under the Kigali Amendment, India's HFC phase-down is to be implemented from 2028 onwards. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Vienna Convention was adopted and signed on 22 March 1985, and MoEFCC noted that the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment is to be implemented from 2028 onwards.
Over what period does the nationwide Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of the Department of Financial Services run?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July – 30 September 2025
DFS launched the three-month campaign from 1 July 2025 to 30 September 2025.
How many new PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts were opened in the first 2.5 months of the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign, as reported in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than 61 lakh
The campaign resulted in over 61 lakh new PMJDY accounts; 2.6 crore was the number of new enrolments under the three Jan Suraksha schemes.
Which of the following schemes are NOT among the flagship schemes targeted by the Financial Inclusion Saturation Campaign of 2025? 1. Atal Pension Yojana 2. PM Suraksha Bima Yojana 3. PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: A — 3 only
Only PM-KISAN is not targeted. The campaign covers PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY.
What is the name of the strategic partnership between India and Denmark that the two Prime Ministers reaffirmed on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Green Strategic Partnership
Both leaders reaffirmed their commitment to further strengthen the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
Consider the following statements based on the Modi–Frederiksen call of 16 September 2025: 1. Denmark was holding the Presidency of the Council of the European Union at the time. 2. Denmark was a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council at the time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PM Modi conveyed best wishes for Denmark's ongoing Presidency of the Council of the EU and its non-permanent membership of the UNSC.
To which UNESCO list is India seeking a multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva, as discussed by the Ministry of Culture in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
The nomination is for inscription on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Under which UNESCO convention would Chhath Mahaparva be inscribed on the intangible heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — 2003 Convention
The multinational nomination of Chhath Mahaparva is for the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity under the 2003 Convention.
Which of the following countries were represented by senior diplomats at the Ministry of Culture's IGNCA meeting of 16 September 2025 on the Chhath Mahaparva nomination?
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Correct answer: D — UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands
Senior diplomatic representatives of the UAE, Suriname and the Netherlands attended the IGNCA meeting; envoys to Mauritius and Fiji joined a separate virtual interaction later.
What is the number of the MANAS anti-drug helpline that Amit Shah urged greater use of at the ANTF heads conference in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1933
Amit Shah said greater use should be made of the MANAS helpline number 1933.
How much quantity of drugs was destroyed under the NCB drug disposal campaign launched by Amit Shah on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1.37 lakh kg
Under the campaign, 1.37 lakh kilograms of drugs worth ₹4,800 crore were destroyed at 11 locations.
Consider the following statements about the three-pronged anti-drug strategy outlined by Amit Shah at the second ANTF heads conference: 1. It calls for a humane approach towards the drug supply chain. 2. It calls for a strategic approach towards demand reduction. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. Shah called for a ruthless approach to the drug supply chain, a strategic approach to demand reduction and a humane approach to harm reduction.
Who led the USTR team that held trade talks in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Brendan Lynch
The team from the Office of the USTR was led by Brendan Lynch, Chief Negotiator for the India-US Bilateral Trade Agreement negotiations.
What did India and the US decide at the end of the trade talks held in India on 16 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — To intensify efforts for early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement
The Commerce Ministry said it was decided to intensify efforts to achieve early conclusion of a mutually beneficial trade agreement.
Which company received CCI approval on 16 September 2025 for the proposed acquisition of Jaiprakash Associates Limited, a company under insolvency resolution?
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Correct answer: C — PNC Infratech Limited
The CCI approved the proposed acquisition of 95–100% of Jaiprakash Associates Limited by PNC Infratech Limited; JAL is under CIRP under the IBC, 2016.
Which company received CCI approval in September 2025 to acquire up to 75% shareholding in Akzo Nobel India Limited?
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Correct answer: A — JSW Paints Limited
The CCI approved the acquisition of up to 75% shareholding in Akzo Nobel India Limited by JSW Paints Limited.
Where was the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025, won by Vaishali Rameshbabu, held?
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Correct answer: D — Samarkand, Uzbekistan
The FIDE Grand Swiss and Women's Grand Swiss 2025 were held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, ending on 15 September 2025.
Consider the following statements about Vaishali Rameshbabu's win at the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025: 1. She became the first player to win the Grand Swiss twice in a row. 2. She finished in clear first place, a full point ahead of the rest of the field. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: FIDE said a second consecutive Grand Swiss win had never been achieved before in either section. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaishali and Kateryna Lagno both scored 8/11, and Vaishali took first place on tiebreak.
Apart from Vaishali Rameshbabu, which player qualified for the 2026 Women's Candidates Tournament from the FIDE Women's Grand Swiss 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kateryna Lagno
Russia's Kateryna Lagno also scored 8/11 and, with Vaishali, took the two Candidates spots from the Women's Grand Swiss; Bibisara Assaubayeva finished third.
Which bench of the Supreme Court passed the interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 on 15 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih
The interim order of 15 September 2025 was passed by a bench of Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai and Justice A.G. Masih.
Under the Supreme Court's interim directions on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of non-Muslim members allowed in the Central Waqf Council and in a State Waqf Board, respectively?
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Correct answer: A — 4 and 3
The Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members and a State Waqf Board not more than 3, recording the Solicitor General's statement to the same effect.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's interim order of 15 September 2025 on the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. The Court stayed the operation of the entire Act until the petitions are finally decided. 2. The condition that a person must be practising Islam for at least five years to create a waqf was stayed until State Governments frame rules for a mechanism to determine it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court found no case to stay the entire statute. Statement 2 is correct: the five-year condition was stayed until State Governments frame rules, since without a mechanism it could lead to arbitrary exercise of power.
While staying the Collector's powers to decide disputes over waqf property under the amended Act, which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court say would be violated if the executive determined citizens' rights?
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Correct answer: D — Separation of powers
The Court said permitting the Collector to adjudicate the rights of citizens would violate the separation of powers, and stayed those provisions until the Waqf Tribunal decides.
India's second contract with the International Seabed Authority for polymetallic sulphides exploration, signed on 15 September 2025, covers an area in which feature of the Indian Ocean?
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Correct answer: C — Carlsberg Ridge
The 15-year contract gives India exclusive rights to explore polymetallic sulphides in an allotted 10,000 sq km area of the Carlsberg Ridge.
Consider the following statements about India's PMS exploration contract with the ISA signed in September 2025: 1. India became the first country to hold two ISA contracts for polymetallic sulphides exploration. 2. The contract is valid for 30 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is the first country with two ISA PMS contracts (the earlier, from 2016, covers the Central and Southwest Indian Ridges). Statement 2 is incorrect: the contract is for 15 years.
The International Seabed Authority, with which India signed its second PMS exploration contract, is based in which country?
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Correct answer: B — Jamaica
The International Seabed Authority, the UN body that regulates mineral exploration in international seabed areas, is based in Jamaica.
The 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' and the Frontier Tech Repository were launched on 15 September 2025 under which NITI Aayog platform?
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Correct answer: D — Frontier Tech Hub
NITI Aayog launched both initiatives under its Frontier Tech Hub, which the Finance Minister likened to a honeycomb bringing together government, industry and innovators.
Which two levers does NITI Aayog's 'AI for Viksit Bharat Roadmap' highlight?
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Correct answer: A — Accelerating AI adoption across industries, and transforming R&D with generative AI
The roadmap highlights two major levers: accelerating adoption of AI across industries to enhance productivity and efficiency, and transforming R&D with generative AI.
In which event did Anandkumar Velkumar win gold at the Speed Skating World Championships 2025 to become India's first world champion in skating?
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Correct answer: B — Senior men's 1000m sprint
Velkumar won gold in the senior men's 1000m sprint in 1:24.924, a day after winning bronze in the 500m sprint.
Where were the Speed Skating World Championships 2025, at which Anandkumar Velkumar won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Beidaihe, China
The championships were held in Beidaihe, China, where Velkumar won the senior men's 1000m sprint on 15 September 2025.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 0.52%
WPI inflation was 0.52% (provisional) in August 2025, turning positive after -0.19% in June and -0.58% in July.
What is the base year of the Wholesale Price Index series used for the August 2025 release?
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Correct answer: C — 2011-12
The WPI release for August 2025 uses the series with base year 2011-12.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services combined) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — US$ 69.16 billion
Total exports in August 2025 were estimated at US$ 69.16 billion, up 9.34% from US$ 63.25 billion in August 2024; US$ 35.10 billion was merchandise exports alone.
Which merchandise export category recorded the highest growth (25.93%) among the major drivers listed for August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports rose 25.93%, from US$ 2.32 billion to US$ 2.93 billion; gems and jewellery grew 15.57%, drugs and pharmaceuticals 6.94% and petroleum products 6.54%.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin, what was India's overall unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5.1%
The overall unemployment rate declined for the second consecutive month, from 5.6% in June and 5.2% in July to 5.1% in August 2025.
The monthly estimates of the Periodic Labour Force Survey are based on which approach?
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Correct answer: B — Current Weekly Status
The PLFS monthly bulletins present LFPR, WPR and unemployment rate estimates at the all-India level following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025, approved on 14 September 2025, replaces a manual that was last promulgated in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2009
The DPM, which regulates revenue procurement by the Defence Services, was last promulgated in 2009; the revised DPM 2025 was approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily governs which type of procurement by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: D — Revenue procurement of goods and services
The DPM lays down principles for all revenue procurements in the Ministry, valued at around ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
Consider the following statements about liquidated damages (LD) under the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. No LD will be levied during the development phase of a contract. 2. The maximum LD has been lowered to 5%, rising to 10% only in cases of inordinate delay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPM 2025 introduces no LD during the development phase and a minimal 0.1% LD after the prototype is developed; maximum LD is lowered to 5%, and only for inordinate delays can it reach 10%.
Under DPM 2025, for how long can the Ministry of Defence give assured orders (in terms of quantity) to suppliers who develop items?
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Correct answer: A — Up to five years, extendable by up to five more years in special circumstances
DPM 2025 provides an assured guarantee of orders in terms of quantity for up to five years and, in special circumstances, up to another five years.
Where were the World Boxing Championships 2025, at which Minakshi Hooda and Jaismine Lamboria won gold, held?
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Correct answer: D — Liverpool, United Kingdom
The World Boxing Championships 2025 were held in Liverpool, where Minakshi won the 48kg and Jaismine the 57kg title.
In which weight category did Jaismine Lamboria win gold at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57kg
Jaismine Lamboria won the women's 57kg title, beating Poland's Julia Szeremeta 4-1; Minakshi Hooda won the 48kg title.
Whom did Minakshi Hooda defeat in the women's 48kg final at the World Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Nazym Kyzaibay of Kazakhstan
Minakshi beat Kazakhstan's Paris Olympics bronze medallist Nazym Kyzaibay 4-1 in the 48kg final; she had beaten Mongolia's Altantsetseg Lutsaikhan in the semi-final.
Consider the following statements about India's campaign at the World Boxing Championships 2025: 1. India won four medals, all of them in the women's section. 2. Nupur Sheoran won gold in the women's 80+kg category. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India won two golds (Minakshi, Jaismine), a silver and a bronze, all by women, while the men drew a blank. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nupur Sheoran won silver in the 80+kg after losing the final 3-2 to Poland's Agata Kaczmarska.
Which team defeated India in the final of the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 on 14 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — China
Hosts China beat India 4-1 in the final in Hangzhou to win their third Women's Asia Cup title.
Who scored India's only goal in the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 final?
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Correct answer: D — Navneet Kaur
Navneet Kaur converted a penalty corner in the first minute to give India the lead before China scored four times.
Consider the following statements about the Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2025: 1. India's loss in the final meant they missed direct qualification for the 2026 FIH Women's World Cup. 2. The final was played in India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: continental champions qualify directly, so China qualified and India must go through the qualifiers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the final was played at the Gongshu Canal Sports Park in Hangzhou, China.
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup, for which China qualified by winning the Asia Cup 2025, will be co-hosted by which countries?
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Correct answer: C — Belgium and the Netherlands
The 2026 FIH Women's Hockey World Cup is to be co-hosted by Belgium and the Netherlands.