CLAT Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In which city was the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting held on 28 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Bishkek
Rajnath Singh addressed the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan.
On the sidelines of the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting in April 2026, what did Rajnath Singh gift to Kyrgyzstan?
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Correct answer: A — Two BHISM Aarogya Maitri Health Cubes
Rajnath Singh gifted two indigenously developed BHISM Aarogya Maitri Health Cubes for HADR and search-and-rescue operations.
Consider the following statements about Rajnath Singh's visit to Bishkek in April 2026: 1. He held bilateral meetings with the defence ministers of Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan and Belarus. 2. He recalled the Tianjin Declaration of the SCO in his address. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence releases of 28 April 2026.
Who signed the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement on behalf of New Zealand on 27 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Todd McClay
The FTA was signed by Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment Todd McClay.
How much investment has New Zealand committed to India under the India–New Zealand FTA?
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Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion
The FTA includes a USD 20 billion investment commitment by New Zealand.
Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. India has excluded dairy products from its market-access offer. 2. Negotiations were concluded in a record 9 months after being announced in March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: dairy is excluded, and talks announced on 16 March 2025 concluded in 9 months, the fastest FTA concluded by India.
What is the last date for submitting nominations for the Padma Awards 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 31 July 2026
Nominations opened on 15 March 2026 and close on 31 July 2026.
In which year were the Padma Awards instituted?
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Correct answer: B — 1954
As per the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Padma Awards were instituted in 1954.
Consider the following statements about eligibility for the Padma Awards: 1. Government servants, including PSU employees, are not eligible, except doctors and scientists. 2. Self-nomination is not permitted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: MHA invites nominations including self-nomination.
Under NITI Aayog's DPI@2047 roadmap, which period does 'DPI 2.0' cover?
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Correct answer: B — 2025–2035
DPI 2.0 covers 2025–2035 (livelihood-led growth); DPI 3.0 covers 2035–2047.
NITI Aayog developed the DPI@2047 roadmap in partnership with which organisations?
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Correct answer: D — EkStep Foundation and Deloitte
The roadmap was developed in partnership with EkStep Foundation and Deloitte.
Who unveiled the DPI@2047 roadmap along with NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery on 27 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Principal Scientific Adviser Ajay Kumar Sood
The roadmap was unveiled by Suman Bery and Principal Scientific Adviser Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood; the CEA was present.
Raghu Rai, who died on 26 April 2026, was the first Indian photographer invited to join which photo agency?
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Correct answer: C — Magnum Photos
Rai joined Magnum Photos in 1977 on the nomination of Henri Cartier-Bresson.
Which photographer nominated Raghu Rai to join Magnum Photos?
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Correct answer: A — Henri Cartier-Bresson
Rai was nominated by French photographer Henri Cartier-Bresson, a founding member of Magnum.
In which year did Raghu Rai join Magnum Photos?
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Correct answer: D — 1977
The Indian Express and the BBC both report that Rai joined Magnum Photos in 1977.
How many space laboratories in universities and colleges will be set up in the first phase, as reviewed on 26 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Seven
Seven space labs will be established in the first phase.
With which institution is the ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund for space startups being operationalised?
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Correct answer: D — SIDBI
The ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund is being operationalised with SIDBI to support growth-stage startups.
Consider the following statements about India's space sector as briefed by IN-SPACe in April 2026: 1. Private investment in the sector has exceeded USD 600 million over the past five years. 2. The number of space startups has crossed 1,000. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: space startups grew to over 400 by early 2026.
According to the Prime Minister in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat (April 2026), India's wind energy capacity has crossed:
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Correct answer: D — 56 GW
The PM said India's wind energy capacity has exceeded 56 GW, with nearly 6 GW added in the last year.
The Fast Breeder Reactor whose criticality was hailed in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
The PM said the Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, has achieved criticality.
Consider the following statements made in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat: 1. India ranks fourth in the world in wind energy capacity. 2. The music of the Beating Retreat ceremony is now available on WAVES OTT for the first time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements were made by the Prime Minister in the 26 April 2026 episode.
Which institution is the initial Implementation Agency for the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 under the April 2026 guidelines?
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Correct answer: C — SIDBI
The guidelines name the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) as the initial Implementation Agency; DPIIT will onboard one more agency.
The corpus of the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0, for which DPIIT issued operational guidelines in April 2026, is:
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000 crore
The guidelines operationalise the ₹10,000 crore corpus of FoF 2.0.
Consider the following statements about the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0 guidelines: 1. Funds will be committed to SEBI-registered Category I and II Alternative Investment Funds, which invest in DPIIT-recognised startups. 2. AIFs will be selected in two stages, ending with evaluation by a Venture Capital Investment Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: FoF 2.0 commits to SEBI-registered Category I and II AIFs, and selection involves screening by the Implementation Agency followed by a Venture Capital Investment Committee.
India met its all-time highest peak power demand on 25 April 2026. What was the demand met?
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Correct answer: C — 256.1 GW
The Ministry of Power said India met an all-time high peak demand of 256.1 GW on 25 April 2026 at 15:38 hrs.
Before 25 April 2026, India's previous all-time high peak power demand of 250 GW was recorded on:
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Correct answer: D — 30 May 2024
The previous all-time high of 250 GW was recorded on 30 May 2024; the FY 2025–26 peak was 245.4 GW on 9 January 2026.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 record power demand: 1. India added a record of around 65 GW of generation capacity during FY 2025–26. 2. Electricity exports to neighbouring countries were suspended to meet the peak. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry cited record capacity addition of around 65 GW in FY 2025–26, and said exports to neighbouring countries were maintained, so only statement 1 is correct.
Census 2027 will be which census in the series since Independence?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
The PIB backgrounder says Census 2027 will be the 16th census in the series and the 8th since Independence.
India's first synchronous census was conducted in:
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Correct answer: B — 1881
The backgrounder says the first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872, not simultaneously, and the first synchronous census was held in 1881.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. The decision to include caste enumeration was taken by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs on 30 April 2025. 2. Its outlay is ₹11,718.24 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the PIB backgrounder of 25 April 2026.
Project DANTAK, which celebrated its 66th Raising Day in April 2026, is a project of the Border Roads Organisation in:
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Correct answer: A — Bhutan
Project DANTAK of the BRO celebrated its 66th Raising Day at Thimphu, Bhutan, where it has worked since April 1961.
Project DANTAK of the Border Roads Organisation was established in Bhutan in:
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Correct answer: C — April 1961
Project DANTAK has served in Bhutan since its establishment in April 1961; its 66th Raising Day in 2026 marked 65 years.
Consider the following statements about Project DANTAK: 1. It was instrumental in building Paro International Airport. 2. It has constructed over 1,500 km of roads in Bhutan, including the East–West Highway connecting Trashigang to Thimphu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Defence release on the 66th Raising Day.
Who was appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog under the Cabinet Secretariat notification of 24 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ashok Kumar Lahiri
The notification approved Ashok Kumar Lahiri's appointment as Vice Chairperson; Rajiv Gauba, K. V. Raju and Abhay Karandikar were among the full-time members.
NITI Aayog, reconstituted in April 2026, was originally constituted through:
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Correct answer: B — A Cabinet resolution dated 1 January 2015
NITI Aayog was constituted by a Cabinet Secretariat resolution dated 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission set up by a Cabinet resolution on 15 March 1950.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 reconstitution of NITI Aayog: 1. Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das were appointed as full-time members. 2. The ex-officio members and special invitees were also replaced. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das are among the five full-time members; the notification says ex-officio members and special invitees remain the same, so only statement 1 is correct.
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 report released on 24 April 2026 rationalised the number of indicators from 516 to:
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Correct answer: B — 150
PAI 2.0 rationalised indicators from 516 to 150 and recorded participation of 97.30% of Gram Panchayats.
Provisions relating to Panchayats, given constitutional status by the 73rd Amendment Act, are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: D — Part IX
The PIB backgrounder notes that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force in 1993 and the provisions related to Panchayats are in Part IX.
Consider the following statements made on National Panchayati Raj Day 2026: 1. The Sixteenth Finance Commission's grant for rural local bodies is nearly 84% higher than under the Fifteenth Finance Commission. 2. Basic and performance grants are split in the ratio 50:50. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The secretary said the 16th FC grant is nearly 84% higher than under the 15th FC, with an 80:20 ratio between basic and performance grants; only statement 1 is correct.
India and the United States issued a Joint Statement agreeing on a framework for an Interim Agreement on trade on:
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Correct answer: B — 7 February 2026
The Commerce Ministry said the Joint Statement on the framework for an Interim Agreement was issued on 7 February 2026.
The in-person India–US Bilateral Trade Agreement round of 20–23 April 2026 was held in:
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Correct answer: D — Washington D.C.
The Indian delegation visited Washington D.C. for the in-person round from 20 to 23 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the India–US trade talks of April 2026: 1. The round aimed to finalise the details of an Interim Agreement. 2. Digital trade and economic security alignment were among the areas discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the round sought to finalise the Interim Agreement, and the areas discussed included digital trade and economic security alignment.
Under which law has the FDI limit in the Indian insurance sector been raised to 100%?
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Correct answer: B — Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025
The PIB backgrounder says the FDI limit in insurance was raised to 100% under the Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025.
According to the Swiss Re report cited by PIB in April 2026, India's rank among global insurance markets by premium volume is:
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Correct answer: C — 10th
India ranks as the 10th largest insurance market globally by premium volume, per the Swiss Re report.
Consider the following statements from the PIB backgrounder on insurance (April 2026): 1. IRDAI has committed to the vision of 'Insurance for All by 2047'. 2. The share of insurance and pension funds in household financial assets fell between FY19 and FY25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
IRDAI's vision is 'Insurance for All by 2047'; the share rose from 28.6% in FY19 to 29.6% in FY25, so only statement 1 is correct.
The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026 come into force on:
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Correct answer: B — 1 May 2026
MeitY said the Rules will come into force on 1 May 2026.
Which body do the Online Gaming Rules, 2026 establish as a unified, digital-first regulator for the sector?
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Correct answer: A — Online Gaming Authority of India
The Rules establish the Online Gaming Authority of India as a unified, digital-first regulator.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming (PROG) Act, 2025 and its Rules: 1. The Act was enacted by Parliament in August 2025. 2. The Rules have been framed under Section 12 of the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PROG Act was enacted in August 2025; the Rules were made under Section 19 (Section 12 deals with civil penalties), so only statement 1 is correct.
Which document on defence industry was signed during Rajnath Singh's talks with Boris Pistorius in Berlin on 22 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap
A Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap and an Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training were signed and exchanged.
Boris Pistorius, who held talks with Rajnath Singh in April 2026, is the Defence Minister of:
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Correct answer: D — Germany
Boris Pistorius is Germany's Federal Minister of Defence; the talks were held in Berlin.
Consider the following statements about the India–Germany defence talks of 22 April 2026: 1. An Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training was signed. 2. The talks were held in Munich. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Implementing Arrangement on UN Peacekeeping Training was signed, but the talks were in Berlin. Only statement 1 is correct.
According to provisional MPEDA data, India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26 were valued at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹72,326 crore
Seafood exports reached a record ₹72,325.82 crore (US$8.28 billion) in FY 2025–26.
Which was the second-largest destination for India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — China
The US was the largest destination; China, the second-largest, grew 22.7% in value.
Consider the following statements about India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26: 1. Frozen shrimp accounted for over two-thirds of total export earnings. 2. Exports to the United States rose in both value and volume. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Frozen shrimp earned ₹47,973.13 crore, over two-thirds of the total, but exports to the US fell 14.5% in value and 19.8% in volume.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, which crossed 9 crore gross enrolments in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — PFRDA
APY is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
Under the Atal Pension Yojana, the guaranteed monthly pension after the age of 60 ranges from:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,000 to ₹5,000
APY guarantees a monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after the subscriber turns 60.
Consider the following statements about the Atal Pension Yojana: 1. It was launched on 9 May 2015 and is open to Indian citizens aged 18 to 40 years. 2. After the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the corpus accumulated till age 60 is returned to the nominee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: APY was launched on 9 May 2015 for citizens aged 18–40, and the corpus goes to the nominee after the death of both subscriber and spouse.
The MoSPI survey 'Household Social Consumption: Health' released in April 2026 was part of which round of the National Sample Survey?
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Correct answer: D — 80th round
The survey was conducted from January to December 2025 as part of the 80th round of the NSS.
According to the NSS health survey of 2025, about what share of childbirths in the reference period took place in hospitals?
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Correct answer: C — 96%
About 96% of childbirths during the last 365 days took place in hospitals.
Consider the following findings of the NSS 'Household Social Consumption: Health' survey (2025): 1. The share of persons reporting an ailment in the last 15 days fell compared with the 2017–18 survey. 2. The hospitalisation rate was highest among persons aged 60 years or more. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Persons reporting an ailment rose to 13.1% from 7.5% in 2017–18, and hospitalisation was highest (8.1%) in the 60+ age group.
The Joint Strategic Vision announced during South Korean President Lee Jae Myung's State Visit to India in April 2026 covers which period?
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Correct answer: B — 2026–2030
The leaders announced the Joint Strategic Vision for the India–ROK Special Strategic Partnership for the next five years, 2026–2030.
Which year has been designated the 'Year of India–ROK Friendship' as an outcome of the April 2026 State Visit?
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Correct answer: D — 2028–29
The outcomes list includes commemoration of 2028–29 as the Year of India–ROK Friendship.
Consider the following outcomes of the India–Republic of Korea State Visit of April 2026: 1. The Republic of Korea will join the International Solar Alliance and the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative. 2. India and the Republic of Korea signed a new Free Trade Agreement replacing the CEPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Korea is joining the ISA and the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, but the two sides only issued a joint declaration on resuming negotiations to upgrade the existing CEPA; no new FTA was signed.
According to the Lok Sabha Speaker, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Budget Session that ended on 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About 93%
The Speaker put Lok Sabha productivity at 93%; about 110% was the Rajya Sabha figure.
The President's address to both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the start of the first session of the year, as on 28 January 2026, is made under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Article 87(1)
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs notes that the President addressed both Houses together in terms of Article 87(1), this being the first session of the year.
Consider the following statements about the Budget Session, 2026: 1. The session had 31 sittings spread over 81 days. 2. In the Lok Sabha, 12 Government Bills were introduced and 12 were passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 12 Bills were introduced but 9 were passed in the Lok Sabha.
In April 2026 the Union Cabinet extended PMGSY-III up to which month and year for roads in plain areas?
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Correct answer: D — March 2028
PMGSY-III was continued beyond March 2025 up to March 2028; only bridges in hilly areas get till March 2029.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 decision on PMGSY-III: 1. The outlay of the scheme was revised upward from ₹80,250 crore to ₹83,977 crore. 2. The deadline for completing bridges in hilly areas was set at March 2029. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 18 April 2026.
Under PMGSY-III, Through Routes and Major Rural Links are consolidated to connect habitations to which of the following? 1. Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) 2. Higher secondary schools 3. Hospitals 4. Railway stations Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3 only
The Cabinet release lists GrAMs, higher secondary schools and hospitals; railway stations are not mentioned.
The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool approved by the Cabinet in April 2026 is backed by a sovereign guarantee of:
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Correct answer: D — ₹12,980 crore
The BMI pool has a sovereign guarantee of ₹12,980 crore; ₹950 crore is its combined underwriting capacity.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool: 1. It covers only Indian-flagged vessels and excludes foreign vessels bound for Indian ports. 2. It covers War risk in addition to Hull and Machinery, Cargo and P&I risks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the pool covers Indian-flagged or controlled vessels and also vessels destined to or starting from India. Statement 2 is correct.
The Cabinet cited high dependence of Indian vessels on which body for Protection and Indemnity (P&I) cover of third-party liabilities such as oil pollution and wreck removal?
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Correct answer: B — International Group of P&I Clubs (IGP&I)
The release says Indian vessels depend heavily on the International Group of Protection and Indemnity (IGP&I) Club for P&I insurance.
India's indicative Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) blending target in ATF for international flights for the year 2030 is:
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Correct answer: C — 5%
The indicative targets are 1% in 2027, 2% in 2028 and 5% in 2030.
The amendment notified on 17 April 2026 to bring SAF-blended fuel under regulation was made to which instrument?
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Correct answer: D — Aviation Turbine Fuel (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001
The Government amended the ATF (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001, the ATF Control Order.
Consider the following statements about CORSIA, cited in the April 2026 ATF Control Order amendment: 1. CORSIA is a scheme implemented by the International Civil Aviation Organization to control emissions from international flights. 2. The mandatory phase of CORSIA begins from 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the mandatory phase begins from 2027, requiring international flights to offset emissions above a baseline.
In the Lok Sabha vote of 17 April 2026 on the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, how many members voted in favour and against?
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Correct answer: A — 298 in favour, 230 against
With 528 members present, 298 voted in favour and 230 against (The Hindu, Indian Express); the Bill needed 352.
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, a Bill to amend the Constitution must be passed in each House by:
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Correct answer: D — A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Article 368(2) requires both limbs in each House: a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. In April 2026, 298 of 528 met the first limb but not the second (352 needed).
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, as summarised by PRS Legislative Research: 1. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha from 550 to 850, with up to 35 members from Union Territories. 2. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha above 250. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: PRS notes the Bill left the Rajya Sabha maximum of 250 (Article 80) unchanged.
The existing freeze on the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among states, based on the 1971 census, was extended until the first census after 2026 by which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 84th Amendment, 2001
PRS notes the 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seats on the 1971 census until the first census after 2000, and the 84th Amendment (2001) extended it until the first census after 2026.
The motion to introduce the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha on 16 April 2026 was carried by what vote in the division?
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Correct answer: A — 251 to 185
The Hindu and BusinessLine report 251 in favour and 185 against at the introduction stage; 298–230 was the vote on passage on 17 April.
Under the Delimitation Bill, 2026 (as summarised by PRS), the proposed Delimitation Commission would consist of: 1. A chairperson who is or has been a Supreme Court judge 2. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC 3. The State Election Commissioner of the state concerned 4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3 only
PRS lists the chairperson (serving or former SC judge), the CEC or a nominated EC, and the State Election Commissioner; the Speaker is not a member.
The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposed that the Delimitation Commission fix the number of Assembly seats at not less than the existing number. Match the UT with that minimum: 1. Puducherry – 30 2. Delhi – 70 3. Jammu and Kashmir – 90 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — Only two
Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. PRS gives the existing figure for Jammu and Kashmir under the 2019 Reorganisation Act as 114, not 90.
Consider the following statements, based on PRS Legislative Research's analysis of the Delimitation Bills of 2026: 1. The last Delimitation Commission was constituted in 2002 and its orders were finalised in 2008. 2. The Delimitation Bill, 2026 provided that the census to be used is the latest one published when the Commission is constituted, implying the 2011 Census. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per PRS.
What is the total central assistance under the Urban Challenge Fund, whose Operational Guidelines were launched on 15 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1 lakh crore
The UCF has central assistance of ₹1 lakh crore; ₹4 lakh crore is the total urban investment it aims to catalyse.
Consider the following statements about the Urban Challenge Fund: 1. Central assistance is limited to 25% of project cost. 2. At least 50% of project funding is to be mobilised through municipal bonds, bank loans and public-private partnerships. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per MoHUA.
How much of the Urban Challenge Fund outlay is earmarked for the Credit Repayment Guarantee Sub-Scheme (CRGSS)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹5,000 crore
₹5,000 crore is earmarked for the CRGSS; another ₹5,000 crore is for project preparation and capacity building, and ₹90,000 crore for projects.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. Data collected under the Census Act, 1948 remains confidential and is used only for statistical purposes and development planning. 2. The Self-Enumeration window before field operations lasts 30 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per MHA. Statement 2 is wrong: the Self-Enumeration period is 15 days; the 30-day period is for house-to-house field operations.
Under which law is data collected in Census 2027 kept confidential?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
MHA states that all data collected under the Census Act, 1948 remains strictly confidential.
Houselisting field operations of Census 2027 began on 16 April 2026 in a set of States/UTs. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Bihar
The first group was A&N Islands, Goa, Karnataka, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Odisha and Sikkim, plus NDMC and Delhi Cantonment. In Bihar, only the Self-Enumeration window was to start, on 17 April.
According to IMD's first-stage forecast of April 2026, the 2026 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over India is expected to be what percentage of the Long Period Average?
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Correct answer: D — 92%
IMD forecast 92% of the LPA with a model error of ±5%, which falls in the below-normal category.
The Long Period Average of India's southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall used by IMD in 2026 is:
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Correct answer: A — 87 cm, based on 1971–2020
IMD states the LPA of seasonal rainfall over the country, based on 1971–2020, is 87 cm.
Consider the following statements from IMD's April 2026 monsoon forecast: 1. The Monsoon Mission Climate Forecast System suggests El Niño conditions may develop during the southwest monsoon season. 2. Indian Ocean Dipole conditions are currently neutral, and positive IOD conditions are likely to develop towards the end of the season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per IMD.