SF Prep Notes
05 MP Police SI Prelims 2026 — Master Notes πŸ•’ Updated 2026-09-30
MP Police SI Prelims 2026 English 114 Official PYQs (2025 paper)

βš–οΈ Indian Constitution & Polity (Civics)

Prelims has 10 Civics questions. These notes cover the full syllabus: from the making of the Constitution to Parliament, the judiciary, MP polity, Panchayati Raj, emergency, amendments, constitutional bodies and basic civics. Every topic follows concept β†’ facts β†’ Exam Trap β†’ official PYQ β†’ Practice MCQ.

πŸ“Š Lessons from the 2025 paper (12 shifts Γ— 10 Civics Qs = 120 Qs studied): MPESB asked most about β€” (1) Article numbers (32, 72, 74, 124, 131, 143, 200, 226, 324, 340, 345, 356...), (2) Making of the Constitution & sources, (3) Parliamentary procedure (session gap, money bill, recess, prorogue), (4) Centre-State relations & commissions, (5) History of Vindhya Pradesh / MP Vidhan Sabha (in 8 of the 12 shifts, 11 questions in total!), (6) Panchayati Raj, (7) Citizenship. So study these topics most carefully.

πŸ“Œ 1. Historical Background & Constituent Assembly (10 min read)

Concept: Our Constitution was not made overnight. During British rule, one Act after another slowly gave Indians a share in governance. The biggest base is the Government of India Act 1935 β€” about half of the Constitution's framework (federal scheme, Governor, judiciary, PSC, emergency) was taken from it.

A. British Acts β€” what came from which Act

ActMain point (Exam point)
Regulating Act 1773Made the Governor of Bengal the Governor-General of Bengal (first: Warren Hastings). Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774).
Pitt's India Act 1784Board of Control created β€” "double government" (Company + British Govt).
Charter Act 1833Governor-General of Bengal β†’ Governor-General of India (first: Lord William Bentinck). Final step of centralisation.
Charter Act 1853Open competition started for the civil services.
Government of India Act 1858Company rule ended, rule of the Crown began. Secretary of State for India. The Governor-General was also called "Viceroy" (first Viceroy: Lord Canning).
Indian Councils Act 1861, 18921861: Indians were nominated, portfolio system. 1892: limited indirect election, discussion on the budget.
Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms)Separate electorate for Muslims. Lord Minto = "Father of communal electorate".
Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)Dyarchy in the provinces β€” subjects divided into "transferred" and "reserved". Bicameral legislature at the Centre. Central Public Service Commission set up in 1926.
Government of India Act 1935Proposal for an All-India Federation (never formed), 3 lists (Federal, Provincial, Concurrent), provincial autonomy, Federal Court (1937), RBI (1935). The biggest source of the Constitution.
Indian Independence Act 1947British rule ended from 15 Aug 1947; full (sovereign) power to the Constituent Assembly.

B. Constituent Assembly β€” Key Facts

  • The idea of a Constituent Assembly was first given by M.N. Roy (1934). Congress officially demanded it in 1935.
  • It was formed under the proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946). (3 members of the Cabinet Mission: Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, A.V. Alexander.)
  • Total members 389 (296 British India + 93 princely states). Members from British India were elected in July-August 1946 by the provincial assemblies (indirect).
  • First meeting: 9 December 1946. Temporary chairman: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha (the oldest member).
  • Permanent President: Dr. Rajendra Prasad (11 Dec 1946). Constitutional Advisor: B.N. Rau.
  • Objectives Resolution: moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 Dec 1946, adopted on 22 Jan 1947. It later became the Preamble.
  • Interim Government β€” formed under the Cabinet Mission plan on 2 September 1946 (Nehru β€” Vice-President of the Viceroy's Executive Council).
  • After partition, the membership came down to 299.
  • Drafting Committee: formed on 29 August 1947, chairman Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, 7 members in total (N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N. Madhava Rau, T.T. Krishnamachari).
  • The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 β€” this day is now celebrated as Samvidhan Divas (Constitution Day). Fully in force: 26 January 1950 (because Purna Swaraj Day was celebrated on 26 Jan 1930).
  • Time taken: 2 years 11 months 18 days, 11 sessions.
  • 24 January 1950: last meeting β€” 284 members signed; Rajendra Prasad was elected the first President; the national anthem and national song were adopted. The national flag was adopted on 22 July 1947.
  • Original Constitution: Preamble + 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules.

C. Major Committees & Chairmen

CommitteeChairman
Drafting CommitteeDr. B.R. Ambedkar
Union Powers Committee, Union Constitution Committee, States CommitteeJawaharlal Nehru
Provincial Constitution Committee; Advisory Committee on FR, Minorities, Tribal AreasSardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Rules of Procedure Committee; Steering CommitteeDr. Rajendra Prasad
Fundamental Rights Sub-CommitteeJ.B. Kripalani
Minorities Sub-CommitteeH.C. Mukherjee
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • The Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission β€” not the Cripps Mission (1942), not the Mountbatten Plan.
  • Objectives Resolution = Nehru (not Ambedkar!). Drafting Committee chairman = Ambedkar.
  • Adopted: 26 Nov 1949; in force: 26 Jan 1950. Election to the CA: 1946.
  • Montagu-Chelmsford = 1919 Act; Morley-Minto = 1909; Provincial autonomy = 1935; Dyarchy in provinces = 1919.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms are known as ______. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Government of India Act 1919
(B) Government of India Act 1935
(C) Government of India Act 1909
(D) Government of India Act 1892
Correct answer: (A) Government of India Act 1919
The GoI Act 1919 came on the report of Montagu (Secretary of State) and Chelmsford (Viceroy) β€” dyarchy in the provinces. 1909 = Morley-Minto.
Q2. The Cabinet Mission was set up ______. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) to prepare the framework for the transfer of power
(B) to fix the date of the transfer of power
(C) to discuss the plan of partition
(D) for the partition of Bengal
Correct answer: (A) to prepare the framework for the transfer of power
The Cabinet Mission (1946) came to decide the method (modalities) of handing over power to Indians and the arrangement for making the Constitution. Plan of partition = Mountbatten Plan (1947); partition of Bengal = 1905.
Q3. When was the first Constituent Assembly of India elected? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 1947
(B) 1946
(C) 1950
(D) 1945
Correct answer: (B) 1946
In July-August 1946 the provincial assemblies elected the members of the CA. First meeting 9 Dec 1946.
Q4. Who was appointed chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly responsible for making the Constitution of India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct answer: (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
The Drafting Committee was formed on 29 Aug 1947, chairman Ambedkar. Rajendra Prasad = President of the CA.
Q5. Who moved the Objectives Resolution (Objective Resolution) in the Constituent Assembly? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
Correct answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Moved by Nehru on 13 Dec 1946; adopted on 22 Jan 1947. The Preamble was based on it.
Q6. The Interim Government proposed under the Cabinet Mission Plan was formed in ______. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 1947
(B) 1946
(C) 1948
(D) 1950
Correct answer: (B) 1946
The Interim Government was formed on 2 September 1946 (under Nehru's leadership).
Q7. The Constituent Assembly of India was formed according to the proposals of which mission? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Cabinet Mission
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) Rajagopalachari Plan
Correct answer: (B) Cabinet Mission
The CA was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan 1946 (389 seats). The Cripps Mission came in 1942, but Congress rejected its proposal.
Q8. Provincial autonomy was introduced by the Government of India Act of ______. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1909
(D) 1947
Correct answer: (A) 1935
The GoI Act 1935 ended dyarchy in the provinces and gave provincial autonomy (in force after the 1937 elections).
✍️ Practice MCQs (self-made, not PYQs):
P1. Who was the temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly? Practice MCQ
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
(C) B.N. Rau
(D) H.C. Mukherjee
Answer: (B) β€” At the first meeting on 9 Dec 1946, the oldest member, Sachchidananda Sinha, became the temporary chairman.
P2. How long did it take to make the Indian Constitution? Practice MCQ
(A) 2 years 11 months 18 days
(B) 3 years 11 months 18 days
(C) 2 years 8 months
(D) 3 years
Answer: (A) β€” From 9 Dec 1946 to 26 Nov 1949.

πŸ“Œ 2. Sources of the Constitution (Borrowed Features) & Salient Features (8 min read)

Concept: The makers of the Constitution took good features from good constitutions of the world and adapted them to Indian needs. That is why it is also called a "borrowed bag" β€” but it was not copying; it was a well-thought-out choice.

A. Sources table (Most asked!)

Country / SourceWhat was taken
GoI Act 1935Federal scheme, office of Governor, judiciary, Public Service Commissions, emergency provisions, administrative details
Britain (UK)Parliamentary government, rule of law, equality before law, single citizenship, cabinet system, legislative procedure, prerogative writs, bicameralism
USAFundamental Rights, judicial review, independence of the judiciary, impeachment of the President, removal of SC/HC judges, office of Vice-President, "equal protection of laws"
IrelandDPSP, nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha, method of election of the President
CanadaFederation with a strong Centre, residuary powers with the Centre, appointment of Governors by the Centre, advisory jurisdiction of the SC
AustraliaConcurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce, joint sitting
Germany (Weimar)Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
USSR (Russia)Fundamental Duties, ideal of justice (social, economic, political) in the Preamble
FranceRepublic, liberty, equality, fraternity in the Preamble
South AfricaAmendment procedure, election of Rajya Sabha members
Japan"Procedure established by law" (Art 21)

B. Salient Features

  • The longest written constitution in the world; it is an enacted constitution β€” not "evolved" or unwritten like the UK's.
  • A mix of rigid + flexible β€” some parts are changed by simple majority, most by special majority, and some with the consent of the states (Art 368).
  • Federal system with unitary bias β€” K.C. Wheare called it "quasi-federal". Art 1 does not use the word "federation"; it says "Union of States".
  • Parliamentary form of government (at both Centre and States) β€” the President is the nominal head, the PM/CoM is the real executive.
  • A blend of parliamentary sovereignty and judicial supremacy; integrated & independent judiciary.
  • FR, DPSP, FD; secular state; universal adult franchise (18 years); single citizenship; independent bodies (ECI, CAG, UPSC); emergency provisions; three-tier government (after the 73rd/74th).
Federal vs Unitary features (for twisted Qs):
Federal: two governments (Centre + State), division of powers (7th Schedule), written constitution, supremacy of the constitution, rigidity, independent judiciary, bicameralism.
Unitary: strong Centre, a single constitution, single citizenship, integrated judiciary, appointment of the Governor by the Centre, All-India Services, emergency provisions, Art 3 (Parliament can change the boundary/name of a state).
Ambedkar: India is "an indestructible union of destructible states".
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • The Indian federation is based on the Canadian model (strong Centre) β€” not the US model. But the basis of the provisions of the federal system = GoI Act 1935. The two questions are different!
  • Concurrent List = Australia; DPSP = Ireland; FD = USSR; Amendment = South Africa; suspension of FR in emergency = Germany.
  • "Equality before law" = Britain; "Equal protection of laws" = USA. If only Britain is in the options, choose Britain.
  • Dual citizenship is NOT a feature of India (the USA has it). India = single citizenship (from the UK).
  • India is not a "Presidential" system β€” it is Parliamentary.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. India's federal system is mainly based on the model of which country? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) American federal system
(B) Australian federal system
(C) Swiss federal system
(D) Canadian federal system
Correct answer: (D) Canadian federal system
Like Canada, India has a strong Centre, residuary powers with the Centre, and the Governor is appointed by the Centre. The US federation was formed by an "agreement of states"; India's was not.
Q2. The federal system in the Indian Constitution is based on the provisions of the ______ Act. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 1919
(B) 1935
(C) 1947
(D) 1909
Correct answer: (B) 1935
The GoI Act 1935 for the first time provided for a federation and 3 lists (Federal, Provincial, Concurrent) β€” the base of our 7th Schedule.
Q3. The principles of "equality before law" and "equal protection of laws" in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of which country? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Britain
(B) New Zealand
(C) Russia
(D) Switzerland
Correct answer: (A) Britain
The "equality before law" of Art 14 is a British concept (rule of law); "equal protection of laws" came from the US. Among the given options, only Britain fits.
Q4. The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution is taken from the constitution of which country? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Russian Constitution
(B) American Constitution
(C) Australian Constitution
(D) French Constitution
Correct answer: (C) Australian Constitution
Q5. The Directive Principles of State Policy in India are mainly inspired by the constitution of which country? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) USA
(B) Ireland
(C) France
(D) Canada
Correct answer: (B) Ireland
Q6. What type of constitution is the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Made or enacted constitution
(B) Evolved constitution
(C) Unwritten constitution
(D) None of these
Correct answer: (A) Made or enacted constitution
The Constituent Assembly made it within a fixed time and brought it into force (enacted). The UK constitution is "evolved" and mostly unwritten.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Federal government
(B) Independence of the judiciary
(C) Parliamentary government
(D) Dual citizenship
Correct answer: (D) Dual citizenship
India has single citizenship (from the UK). Dual citizenship exists in federal countries like the USA.
Q8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) It is democratic.
(B) It is a republic.
(C) It is federal.
(D) It is a presidential system.
Correct answer: (D) It is a presidential system.
India has a parliamentary system β€” real power lies with the PM and the Council of Ministers, who are responsible to the Lok Sabha.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. "Fundamental Duties" are inspired by the constitution of which country? Practice MCQ
(A) USA
(B) Former Soviet Union (USSR)
(C) Ireland
(D) Japan
Answer: (B)
P2. "Procedure established by law" (Art 21) is taken from which country? Practice MCQ
(A) Japan
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Canada
Answer: (A) Japan β€” The USA has "due process of law".

πŸ“Œ 3. Preamble (5 min read)

Concept: The Preamble is the "introduction letter" of the Constitution β€” it tells (1) where the Constitution gets its power from ("We, the people of India" β€” from the people), (2) what kind of state India is (Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic), and (3) what its objectives are (Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity).

Text of the Preamble (worth memorising)

"WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION."

WordMeaning
SovereignIndia is not subject to any outside power, internally or externally.
Socialist*Democratic socialism β€” mixed economy, reducing inequality.
Secular*The state has no religion; equal respect for all religions (sarva dharma sambhav).
DemocraticGovernment elected by the people, universal adult franchise.
RepublicThe head of the state (President) is elected, not hereditary.

* Socialist, Secular and Integrity β€” these 3 words were added by the 42nd Amendment 1976. The Preamble has been amended only once so far.

  • The ideal of Justice (social, economic, political) β€” from the Russian Revolution (USSR); Liberty, Equality, Fraternity β€” from the French Revolution.
  • Basis of the Preamble = Nehru's Objectives Resolution.
  • Berubari Union case (1960): the Preamble is NOT a part of the Constitution. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973): the Preamble is a part of the Constitution (the same in the LIC case 1995). It can be amended, but the basic structure cannot be changed.
  • The Preamble is not enforceable (non-justiciable) in court.
  • K.M. Munshi called it the "political horoscope" and N.A. Palkhivala called it the "identity card of the Constitution".
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • The "adoption date" written in the Preamble = 26 November 1949 (not 26 Jan 1950).
  • "Integrity" was added by the 42nd β€” "Unity" was already there.
  • The objective of "social justice" β€” in the Preamble (and in DPSP Art 38). Art 14/15/16 is not the answer.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Where is the objective of "social justice" mentioned in the Constitution of India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Preamble
Correct answer: (D) Preamble
The Preamble promises "social, economic and political justice". Art 14-16 are rights to equality.
Q2. In which year did the Parliament of India pass the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, often called the "Mini-Constitution"? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 1967
(B) 1968
(C) 1976
(D) 1977
Correct answer: (C) 1976
42nd Amendment Act 1976 (Indira Gandhi government, during the Emergency). Some of its parts came into force in Jan-April 1977 β€” hence the "1977" trap; the year of the Act is 1976.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. In which case did the Supreme Court say that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution? Practice MCQ
(A) Berubari Union (1960)
(B) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
(C) Golaknath (1967)
(D) Maneka Gandhi (1978)
Answer: (B) β€” In Berubari, the opposite was said.
P2. The word "Republic" means β€” Practice MCQ
(A) The head of the state is elected
(B) The state has no religion
(C) Parliament is supreme
(D) The judiciary is independent
Answer: (A)

πŸ“Œ 4. Parts & Schedules of the Constitution (6 min read)

Concept: The original Constitution had 395 articles, 22 parts and 8 schedules. Amendments added new articles by attaching "A, B" (like 21A, 51A, 243A) β€” so the article numbering still ends at 395 today. Today there are 25 Parts (IVA, IXA, IXB, XIVA added; Part VII removed) and 12 Schedules.

A. Parts

PartSubjectArticles
IUnion & its Territory1–4
IICitizenship5–11
IIIFundamental Rights (FR)12–35
IVDirective Principles of State Policy (DPSP)36–51
IVAFundamental Duties (FD)51A
VThe Union (President, Parliament, SC, CAG)52–151
VIThe States (Governor, State Legislature, HC)152–237
VII(Part B states β€” removed by the 7th Amendment 1956)β€”
VIIIUnion Territories (UTs)239–242
IXThe Panchayats (73rd)243–243O
IXAThe Municipalities (74th)243P–243ZG
IXBCo-operative Societies (97th, 2011)243ZH–243ZT
XScheduled and Tribal Areas244–244A
XIRelations between the Union and the States245–263
XIIFinance, Property, Contracts (Finance Commission Art 280, Art 300A property)264–300A
XIIITrade, Commerce301–307
XIVServices under the Union and the States (UPSC/SPSC)308–323
XIVATribunals323A–323B
XVElections (ECI Art 324)324–329
XVISpecial provisions relating to certain classes (SC/ST, NCSC, NCBC)330–342A
XVIIOfficial Language343–351
XVIIIEmergency Provisions352–360
XIXMiscellaneous (Art 361 immunity to the President/Governor)361–367
XXAmendment of the Constitution368
XXITemporary, Transitional and Special Provisions369–392
XXIIShort title, Commencement, Authoritative text in Hindi, Repeals393–395

B. 12 Schedules

ScheduleSubject
1stNames and territories of the States and UTs
2ndSalaries and allowances of the President, Governor, Speaker, judges, CAG
3rdForms of oath/affirmation
4thAllocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
5thAdministration of Scheduled Areas and tribes (MP comes under this)
6thTribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
7th3 Lists β€” Union, State, Concurrent (original number: 97, 66, 47 subjects)
8th22 languages (originally 14)
9thLand reform laws β€” from the 1st Amendment 1951; to protect them from judicial review
10thAnti-defection law β€” 52nd Amendment 1985
11thPanchayat β€” 29 subjects (73rd, 1992)
12thMunicipality β€” 18 subjects (74th, 1992)
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Citizenship = Part II (not Part III β€” Part III is FR).
  • Laws in the 9th Schedule were considered "outside" judicial review. But I.R. Coelho case (2007): laws added after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed by the court if they violate the basic structure. If the exam question is simple, the answer is the 9th Schedule.
  • Powers of Panchayats = 11th; Municipalities = 12th; Anti-defection = 10th.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Subjects listed in which Schedule are outside judicial review? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 9th Schedule
(C) 8th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Correct answer: (B) 9th Schedule
The 1st Amendment 1951 added Art 31B and the 9th Schedule so that land reform laws could not be challenged in court. (After the I.R. Coelho judgment of 2007, laws added after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed on the basis of the basic structure.)
Q2. In which Part of the Constitution of India is citizenship described? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Correct answer: (B) Part II (Articles 5–11)
Q3. In which Schedule of the Constitution of India are the powers of Panchayats described? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Eighth Schedule
(B) Ninth Schedule
(C) Tenth Schedule
(D) Eleventh Schedule
Correct answer: (D) Eleventh Schedule β€” 29 subjects, 73rd Amendment 1992.
Q4. Consider the following statements about co-operative societies. 1. Part IX-B of the Constitution deals with co-operative societies. 2. Co-operative societies are mentioned in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution. 3. Part IX-B of the Constitution deals with co-operative societies. Choose the correct answer. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The 97th Amendment (2011, in force 12 Jan 2012) added Part IXB (co-operative societies), Art 43B in the DPSP (promotion of co-operative societies) and "co-operative societies" in Art 19(1)(c). Statements 1 and 3 say the same thing β€” both are correct. (Note: in 2021 the SC limited Part IXB to multi-state co-operatives only, but Part IXB still exists in the Constitution.)

πŸ“Œ 5. The Union & its Territory (Art 1–4), States Reorganisation & Formation of MP (8 min read)

  • Art 1: "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States". Territory = States + UTs + acquired territories.
  • Art 2: Admission of new states into the Union (that were not earlier part of India) β€” like Sikkim (full state by the 36th Amendment 1975).
  • Art 3: Parliament can by law form a new state, and change the area/boundary/name of any state. The Bill comes on the recommendation of the President; the President takes the views of the state legislature concerned (accepting the views is not necessary). Passed by simple majority.
  • Art 4: Laws under Art 2 and 3 are not considered "amendments of the Constitution" under Art 368.

States Reorganisation

  • In 1950 the states were in 4 categories: Part A (former Governor's provinces), Part B (unions of princely states β€” Rajpramukh), Part C (Chief Commissioner's provinces), Part D (Andaman-Nicobar).
  • The Dhar Commission (1948) and the JVP Committee (Nehru, Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya β€” 1948) rejected language-based states.
  • Andhra (1953) β€” the first linguistic state (after Potti Sriramulu died on hunger strike).
  • Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission, 1953; members K.M. Panikkar, H.N. Kunzru) β†’ States Reorganisation Act 1956 + 7th Amendment 1956: A/B/C/D categories ended; from 1 Nov 1956, 14 states and 6 UTs.
  • Today: 28 States, 8 UTs (J&K and Ladakh UTs β€” 31 Oct 2019; merger of Dadra-Nagar Haveli and Daman-Diu β€” 26 Jan 2020).
🟒 MP Special β€” Formation of Madhya Pradesh (in 2025, in 8 of the 12 shifts, 11 questions in total came from this!)
The new Madhya Pradesh was formed on 1 November 1956. It had 4 constituent states: (1) old Madhya Pradesh (Mahakoshal β€” part of C.P. & Berar), (2) Madhya Bharat, (3) Vindhya Pradesh, (4) Bhopal. All four had their own legislative assemblies β€” after reorganisation all four assemblies were merged into one. On 1 Nov 2000 Chhattisgarh separated.

Vindhya Pradesh (according to the official MP Vidhan Sabha history):
  • Established: 4 April 1948; initially a "B" category state; Rajpramukh: Shri Martand Singh.
  • In 1950 it was changed from "B" to "C" category.
  • From 1 March 1952 it became a Lieutenant/Deputy Governor's (Up-Rajyapal) province; Chief Minister Pt. Shambhunath Shukla.
  • In the 1952 general election, 60 members were elected to the assembly; Speaker Shri Shivanand; Deputy Speaker Shri Shyam Sundar 'Shyam'.
  • First sitting of the assembly: 21 April 1952; term about 4.5 years, about 170 sittings.
Bhopal: a "C" category state, 30-member assembly (March 1952 – Oct 1956); CM Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma; Speaker Sultan Mohammad Khan.
Madhya Bharat: formed in May 1948 by merging the Gwalior, Indore and Malwa princely states; life-long Rajpramukh Jiwaji Rao Scindia; first CM Liladhar Joshi; 99 seats in 1952; first session of the new assembly 17 March 1952, Gwalior.
First MP Vidhan Sabha: came into existence on 1 Nov 1956; its first and last session was 17 December 1956 – 17 January 1957. (First CM: Pt. Ravishankar Shukla; first Governor: Dr. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya; first Speaker: Pt. Kunjilal Dubey.)
⚠️ Exam Traps (do not confuse the 4 dates of Vindhya Pradesh):
  • 4 April 1948 = established (B category) | 1950 = B β†’ C | 1 March 1952 = Up-Rajyapal's province | 21 April 1952 = first sitting of the assembly.
  • Rajpramukh = Martand Singh; CM = Shambhunath Shukla; Speaker = Shivanand. (These same four names keep rotating in the options!)
  • Under Art 3, the power to change the name/boundary of a state lies with Parliament β€” not the state legislature or the President alone.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. According to the provisions of Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, who has the power to change the boundaries or name of a state? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Only the state legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President (independently)
Correct answer: (B) Parliament β€” by making a law by simple majority.
Q2. When was Vindhya Pradesh established? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 26 January 1950
(B) 4 April 1948
(C) 1 March 1952
(D) 21 April 1952
Correct answer: (B) 4 April 1948
Q3. Which category status was Vindhya Pradesh given initially? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) A category
(B) B category
(C) C category
(D) Union Territory
Correct answer: (B) B category β€” Rajpramukh Martand Singh; changed to C category in 1950.
Q4. In which year was Vindhya Pradesh of Madhya Pradesh upgraded from B category to C category? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1952
(D) 1956
Correct answer: (B) 1950 (according to the official history of the MP Vidhan Sabha).
Q5. From which date was Vindhya Pradesh made a Lieutenant Governor's province? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 4 April 1948
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 1 March 1952
(D) 21 April 1952
Correct answer: (C) 1 March 1952
Q6. Who became the Chief Minister of Vindhya Pradesh after it became a Lieutenant Governor's territory? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Shri Martand Singh
(B) Shri Shivanand
(C) Pt. Shambhunath Shukla
(D) Shri Shyam Sundar 'Shyam'
Correct answer: (C) Pt. Shambhunath Shukla β€” Martand Singh was the Rajpramukh, Shivanand the Speaker, Shyam Sundar 'Shyam' the Deputy Speaker.
Q7. Who presided over the Vindhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly formed after the 1952 elections? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Shri Martand Singh
(B) Pt. Shambhunath Shukla
(C) Shri Shyam Sundar 'Shyam'
(D) Shri Shivanand
Correct answer: (D) Shri Shivanand
Q8. When was the first sitting of the Vindhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly (Madhya Pradesh) held? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 4 April 1948
(B) 1 March 1952
(C) 21 April 1952
(D) 26 January 1950
Correct answer: (C) 21 April 1952
Q9. How many members were elected to the Vindhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly of Madhya Pradesh in the 1952 general elections? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 50
(B) 55
(C) 60
(D) 65
Correct answer: (C) 60 β€” The Bhopal assembly had 30 members and the Madhya Bharat assembly had 99 seats (do not mix up these three numbers).
Q10. What happened to the legislative assemblies after the reorganisation of states in 1956? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) They were dissolved permanently
(B) They continued separately
(C) All four assemblies were merged into one
(D) They were converted into councils
Correct answer: (C) All four assemblies were merged into one β€” The assemblies of MP, Madhya Bharat, Vindhya Pradesh and Bhopal merged to form the first MP Vidhan Sabha on 1 Nov 1956.
Q11. When was the first and last session of the first Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly held? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 26 January 1950 – 26 February 1950
(B) 17 December 1956 – 17 January 1957
(C) 1 November 1956 – 1 December 1956
(D) 15 August 1956 – 15 September 1956
Correct answer: (B) 17 December 1956 – 17 January 1957
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who was the Rajpramukh of Vindhya Pradesh? Practice MCQ
(A) Jiwaji Rao Scindia
(B) Martand Singh
(C) Shivanand
(D) Liladhar Joshi
Answer: (B) β€” Jiwaji Rao Scindia was the Rajpramukh of Madhya Bharat.
P2. Who was the Chief Minister of Bhopal State (1952–56)? Practice MCQ
(A) Pt. Ravishankar Shukla
(B) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(C) Pt. Shambhunath Shukla
(D) Liladhar Joshi
Answer: (B)

πŸ“Œ 6. Citizenship (Part II, Art 5–11) (5 min read)

Concept: The Constitution (Art 5–8) only tells who was a citizen on 26 Jan 1950. Everything else (how citizenship is acquired, how it ends) is decided by Parliament (Art 11) β€” the Citizenship Act 1955 was made under this. India has single citizenship (from the UK) β€” every Indian is only a "citizen of India", not separately a citizen of a state.
ArticleSubject
5Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (domicile + birth/parents/5 years' residence)
6Citizenship of persons who migrated to India from Pakistan
7Citizenship of persons who migrated from India to Pakistan
8Persons of Indian origin living abroad
9Indian citizenship ends on voluntarily acquiring foreign citizenship
10Continuance of the rights of citizenship
11Parliament to regulate citizenship by law

Citizenship Act 1955

  • 5 ways of acquiring citizenship: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, incorporation of territory.
  • 3 ways of losing citizenship: (1) Renunciation β€” giving it up oneself; (2) Termination β€” automatic on voluntarily acquiring another country's citizenship; (3) Deprivation β€” taken away by the Central Govt (fraud, disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during war, a sentence of 2+ years within 5 years of registration/naturalisation, or living outside India continuously for 7 years β€” these grounds apply to citizens by registration/naturalisation).
  • General rule for naturalisation: residence in India for the 12 months just before applying + 11 of the 14 years before that.
  • CAA 2019 (Citizenship Amendment Act): for Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians who came from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan up to 31 Dec 2014, the period for naturalisation is 5 years. Rules notified on 11 March 2024.
  • OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) β€” this is NOT dual citizenship; it gives some facilities (lifelong visa).
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • "Birth, Registration, Naturalisation" are ways of acquiring citizenship β€” the way of losing it = Renunciation.
  • Dual citizenship = a feature of countries with a federal government like the USA; India, though federal, has single citizenship.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Which of the following is a way of losing Indian citizenship? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Renunciation
(B) Birth
(C) Registration
(D) Naturalization
Correct answer: (A) Renunciation β€” the other three are ways of acquiring citizenship.
Q2. Dual citizenship is a feature of ____. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Unitary government
(B) Parliamentary government
(C) Federal government
(D) Presidential rule
Correct answer: (C) Federal government β€” in a federation there can be citizenship of both the Centre and the State (like the USA). A unitary government has only one citizenship.
Q3. Which country has adopted the policy of dual citizenship? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Singapore
(D) America
Correct answer: (D) America
Q4. Indian citizenship ends when the number of years of continuous stay outside is ____. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 5 years
(B) 9 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 7 years
Correct answer: (D) 7 years
Citizenship Act 1955, Section 10(2)(e): if a citizen by registration/naturalisation stays outside India continuously for 7 years (without being a student, serving the government/an international organisation, or registering at the consulate every year), the Central Govt can take away (deprive) his citizenship.

πŸ“Œ 7. Fundamental Rights & Writs (Part III, Art 12–35) (12 min read)

Concept: Fundamental Rights are the rights that are necessary for the development of every person and that can be enforced in court (justiciable). They were taken from the Bill of Rights of the USA. Part III is called the "Magna Carta of India". The original Constitution had 7 FR; the 44th Amendment 1978 removed the "Right to Property" (Art 31, 19(1)(f)) β€” now there are 6 FR. Property is now only a legal/constitutional right under Art 300A.

A. 6 Fundamental Rights β€” Article-wise

RightArticlesKey points
1. Right to Equality14–1814: equality before law + equal protection of laws Β· 15: no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth Β· 16: equality of opportunity in public employment Β· 17: abolition of untouchability Β· 18: abolition of titles (Bharat Ratna/Padma awards are not "titles" β€” Balaji Raghavan case 1996)
2. Right to Freedom19–2219: 6 freedoms β€” (a) speech and expression, (b) assemble peaceably and without arms, (c) form associations/unions/co-operative societies, (d) move freely anywhere in India, (e) reside anywhere, (g) any profession/occupation Β· 20: protection in respect of conviction for offences (no double jeopardy, no self-incrimination) Β· 21: protection of life and personal liberty Β· 21A: right to education (6–14 years) β€” 86th Amendment 2002 Β· 22: protection against arrest/detention (before a magistrate within 24 hours)
3. Right against Exploitation23–2423: ban on human trafficking and begar (forced labour) Β· 24: children below 14 years cannot be employed in factories/mines/hazardous work
4. Right to Freedom of Religion25–2825: freedom of conscience, freedom to profess and propagate religion (Sikhs carrying the kirpan comes under this) Β· 26: managing religious affairs Β· 27: no tax for a particular religion Β· 28: no religious instruction in government educational institutions
5. Cultural and Educational Rights29–3029: protection of the language, script and culture of minorities Β· 30: right of minorities to establish their own educational institutions β€” both protect the interests of minorities
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies32For violation of FR one can go directly to the Supreme Court. Ambedkar: "the heart and soul of the Constitution".

Art 12 = definition of "State" Β· Art 13 = laws inconsistent with FR are void β€” this is the basis of judicial review Β· Art 33 = Parliament can restrict the FR of the armed forces, police etc. Β· Art 34 = restriction on FR during martial law Β· Art 35 = laws on some FR will be made only by Parliament.

Points to understand:
  • Freedom of the press is not mentioned separately in the Constitution β€” it is implied in Art 19(1)(a) (freedom of expression) (Romesh Thappar 1950, Sakal Papers 1962).
  • The court widened Art 21: Maneka Gandhi case (1978) β€” the "procedure" must be just, fair and reasonable. It now includes privacy (Puttaswamy 2017), clean environment, speedy justice, livelihood etc.
  • Some FR are only for citizens: Art 15, 16, 19, 29, 30. The rest (14, 20, 21, 22, 25...) are for foreigners too.
  • Even during a National Emergency, Art 20 and 21 cannot be suspended (44th Amendment 1978). Art 19 is automatically suspended only in an emergency due to war/external aggression (Art 358).
  • The Untouchability (Offences) Act 1955 was renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 β€” amendment in 1976 (in force 19 Nov 1976). After this came the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989.

B. 5 Writs β€” Art 32 (SC) & Art 226 (HC)

WritLiteral meaningWhen it is issued
Habeas Corpus"To have the body" β€” produce the bodyAgainst illegal detention/arrest. Against both government and private persons. The most important β€” protects personal liberty.
Mandamus"We command"Orders a public official/body to perform its legal duty. Not against the President, Governor or a private person.
Prohibition"To forbid" β€” to stopA higher court stops a lower court/tribunal from going beyond its jurisdiction (while the case is going on).
Certiorari"To be certified / informed"Calling up a case from a lower court or quashing its decision (even after the case).
Quo Warranto"By what authority/warrant"If a person is illegally holding a public office, the court asks β€” by what authority do you hold the office? It is a writ issued by a court.

SC vs HC: The SC (Art 32) issues writs only for FR; the HC (Art 226) issues them for FR as well as for other legal rights β€” so the writ jurisdiction of the HC is wider. Art 32 is itself an FR; Art 226 is not.

⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • "Heart and soul" = Art 32 / Right to Constitutional Remedies β€” asked both ways! Not Art 21 or Art 14.
  • Art 19 now has 6 freedoms (the 7th β€” property 19(1)(f) β€” was removed by the 44th). Original FR 7, now 6.
  • "We command" = Mandamus; "To have the body" = Habeas Corpus; "By what authority" = Quo Warranto.
  • HC writ = Art 226 (Art 32 = SC). Advisory = 143, Original = 131 β€” do not mix them up.
  • RTE (Art 21A) is part of the Right to Freedom group (Art 19–22) β€” not "Cultural & Educational Rights" (29–30)!
  • Minorities = Art 29 & 30; Art 17 = untouchability; FR of armed forces restricted = Art 33.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. How many fundamental freedoms are currently protected under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Nine
(B) Eight
(C) Seven
(D) Six
Correct answer: (D) Six β€” 19(1)(a),(b),(c),(d),(e),(g). (f), the property one, was removed by the 44th Amendment 1978.
Q2. Which of the following is famously called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 31
Correct answer: (C) Article 32
Q3. Which Fundamental Right did Dr. B. R. Ambedkar call the "heart and soul" of the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Correct answer: (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art 32)
Q4. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the protection of the interests of minorities? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 29 and 30
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 31
Correct answer: (B) Article 29 and 30
Q5. The Latin term meaning 'we command' is related to which writ? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Prohibition
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Mandamus
Correct answer: (D) Mandamus
Q6. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can a High Court issue writs for the protection of Fundamental Rights? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 35
(D) Article 226
Correct answer: (D) Article 226 β€” Art 32 is for the Supreme Court.
Q7. Freedom of the press in India is: MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Available to the people under a law of Parliament
(B) Specially provided in the Constitution
(C) Implied in the right to freedom of expression
(D) Available to the people of India under the power of the executive
Correct answer: (C) Implied in the right to freedom of expression β€” Art 19(1)(a). The word "press" is not written separately in the Constitution.
Q8. In the context of Indian law, which of these options best describes 'Quo Warranto'? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) A writ issued by a court
(B) A law passed by Parliament
(C) An international treaty
(D) A legislative act
Correct answer: (A) A writ issued by a court
Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the Fundamental Rights of members of the armed forces be specially restricted? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 25
(D) Article 33
Correct answer: (D) Article 33 β€” Parliament can restrict the FR of the armed forces, police/public order forces, intelligence organisations etc.
Q10. Which writ is used to challenge the illegal detention of a person? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Mandamus
Correct answer: (A) Habeas Corpus
Q11. Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the right to education? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Correct answer: (B) Right to Freedom β€” Art 21A (86th Amendment 2002) is in the Right to Freedom (Art 19–22) group.
Q12. When was the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 renamed the "Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955"? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 1972
(B) 1977
(C) 1976
(D) 1955
Correct answer: (C) 1976 β€” Untouchability (Offences) Amendment Act 1976, in force 19 Nov 1976.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. By which amendment was the right to property removed from the Fundamental Rights? Practice MCQ
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 86th
Answer: (B) 44th (1978) β€” now a legal right under Art 300A.
P2. Which Articles cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency? Practice MCQ
(A) 14 and 19
(B) 19 and 21
(C) 20 and 21
(D) 21 and 32
Answer: (C) 20 and 21
P3. Within how many hours must an arrested person be produced before the nearest magistrate (Art 22)? Practice MCQ
(A) 12 hours
(B) 24 hours
(C) 48 hours
(D) 72 hours
Answer: (B) 24 hours (excluding journey time) β€” very important for Police SI!

πŸ“Œ 8. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP β€” Part IV, Art 36–51) (6 min read)

Concept: DPSP are "guidelines" for the government β€” they must be kept in mind while making laws and policies so that India becomes a welfare state. They were taken from the constitution of Ireland. Art 37: they cannot be enforced in court (non-justiciable), but they are "fundamental" in the governance of the country. Ambedkar called them a "novel feature" of the Constitution.
ArticleDirective
38Social order β€” social, economic, political justice; reducing inequality of income (38(2) β€” 44th)
39(a) adequate means of livelihood (b)(c) equal distribution of resources, no concentration of wealth (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women
39AEqual justice and free legal aid (42nd)
40Organisation of Village Panchayats (Gandhian)
41, 42, 43Right to work, education, public assistance; humane conditions of work, maternity relief; living wage, cottage industries
43A, 43BParticipation of workers in the management of industries (42nd); promotion of co-operative societies (97th, 2011)
44Uniform Civil Code
45Care and education of children up to 6 years (after the 86th)
46Educational and economic interests of SC/ST and weaker sections
47Level of nutrition, public health; prohibition (of intoxicating drinks)
48, 48AAgriculture and animal husbandry, ban on cow slaughter; protection of environment, forests and wildlife (42nd)
49, 50, 51National monuments; separation of the judiciary from the executive; international peace

Classification: Socialist (38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 47) Β· Gandhian (40, 43, 46, 47, 48) Β· Liberal-intellectual (44, 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50, 51). Minerva Mills (1980): the balance between FR and DPSP is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • On hearing "right to adequate means of livelihood", do not choose FR β€” it is a DPSP (Art 39(a)).
  • The aims of DPSP are a welfare state, socio-economic justice, gram panchayats β€” but never a "religious state" (India is secular).
  • FR = justiciable (enforceable in court); DPSP = non-justiciable. FR are "negative" (they restrain the state), DPSP are "positive" (they ask the state to act).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. The 'right to adequate means of livelihood' is related to which part of the Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Emergency Provisions
Correct answer: (B) Directive Principles β€” Art 39(a).
Q2. Which is NOT an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) To ensure a welfare state
(B) To ensure socio-economic justice
(C) To establish a religious state
(D) To ensure the formation of Gram Panchayats
Correct answer: (C) To establish a religious state β€” Art 40 gram panchayat, Art 38 justice/welfare state.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. In which Article is the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) mentioned? Practice MCQ
(A) Article 40
(B) Article 44
(C) Article 48
(D) Article 51
Answer: (B)
P2. By which amendment was free legal aid (Art 39A) added? Practice MCQ
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 73rd
(D) 86th
Answer: (A) 42nd (1976)

πŸ“Œ 9. Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Art 51A) (4 min read)

  • On the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, Part IVA and Art 51A were added by the 42nd Amendment 1976. Inspiration: USSR (former Soviet Union).
  • Initially 10 duties; the 11th β€” 51A(k) β€” by the 86th Amendment 2002: parents/guardians shall provide opportunities for education to their child of 6–14 years.
  • They apply only to citizens and are non-justiciable (the court does not enforce them directly).
51ADuty
(a)Respect the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
(b)Follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
(c)Protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d)Defend the country and render national service when called upon
(e)Harmony and brotherhood; renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
(f)Value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(g)Protect the natural environment (forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife), compassion for living creatures
(h)Scientific temper, humanism, spirit of inquiry and reform
(i)Safeguard public property, abjure violence
(j)Strive towards excellence in individual and collective activity
(k)Opportunities for education to a child of 6–14 years (86th, 2002)
Remember the case: Santosh Kumar v. Secretary, MHRD (1994) β€” the Supreme Court said that the foundation of the "composite culture" written in Art 51A(f) is the Sanskrit language and literature; so making Sanskrit an optional subject in the school syllabus is justified.
🎯 Official PYQ (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. According to the Supreme Court of India, what is the foundation of the "composite culture" mentioned in the clause of Article 51A: MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) The diverse culture of India
(B) Sanskrit language and literature
(C) The secular fabric of India
(D) Values developed during the freedom struggle
Correct answer: (B) Sanskrit language and literature β€” Santosh Kumar case (1994).
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. On the recommendation of which committee were the Fundamental Duties added? Practice MCQ
(A) Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Sarkaria Commission
(D) Verma Committee
Answer: (A)
P2. What is the present number of Fundamental Duties? Practice MCQ
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (B) 11

πŸ“Œ 10. Union Executive β€” President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, Attorney General (Art 52–78) (12 min read)

Concept: India has a parliamentary system of government. The President is the Head of State β€” the nominal/constitutional head; the PM is the Head of Government β€” the real executive. All work is done in the President's name, but decisions are taken by the PM and the Council of Ministers. The core principle of parliamentary government is responsibility & accountability: the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

A. President (Art 52–62)

  • Art 52: There shall be a President of India. Art 53: the executive power of the Union is vested in the President. Supreme commander of all three armed forces.
  • Election (Art 54): electoral college β€” elected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states and of Delhi, Puducherry (not nominated members, not the Vidhan Parishad). Method: proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote (from Ireland).
  • Qualifications: citizen, 35 years, qualified to be a member of the Lok Sabha. Term 5 years, can be re-elected.
  • Oath: administered by the CJI. Resignation: to the Vice-President.
  • Impeachment (Art 61): only ground is "violation of the Constitution"; can start in either House; 14 days' notice; by a majority of 2/3 of the total membership of each House. Nominated members take part, MLAs do not.
  • Powers: Art 72 β€” pardon, reprieve, respite, remission, commutation (can also pardon sentences by a court martial and the death sentence; the Governor under Art 161 cannot pardon a death sentence). Art 123 β€” Ordinance (when Parliament is not in session). Art 143 β€” advice from the SC. Art 352/356/360 β€” emergency.
  • Art 74(1): the President shall act on the advice of the Council of Ministers β€” the 42nd Amendment (1976) made the advice binding; the 44th (1978) gave the President the right to send the advice back once for reconsideration, but advice given again must be accepted.
  • Powers over Parliament (Art 85): to summon the Houses, to prorogue them, and to dissolve the Lok Sabha. Adjournment is done by the Speaker/Chairman, not the President.
  • Salary and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, and cannot be reduced during the term (Art 59(4)).
  • Present President: Smt. Droupadi Murmu (15th President, since 25 July 2022) (as of Sep 2026). First President: Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

B. Vice-President (Art 63–71)

  • Art 64: ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (Office taken from the US.)
  • Election: all members of both Houses of Parliament (including nominated); MLAs do not take part. Qualifications: 35 years, qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha. Term 5 years.
  • Oath: administered by the President; resignation: to the President. Removal: by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha (14 days' notice) β€” not impeachment.
  • Present: C.P. Radhakrishnan (15th VP, since 12 Sep 2025) (as of Sep 2026).

C. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers (Art 74–75)

  • Art 74: there shall be a Council of Ministers with the PM at its head to advise the President. Art 75(1): the PM is appointed by the President; the other ministers on the PM's advice.
  • Art 75(3): the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • Art 75(5): a minister who is not a member of either House for 6 consecutive months ceases to be a minister at the end of that period. (Same in the states β€” Art 164(4).)
  • 91st Amendment (2003): size of the Council of Ministers max 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (in states 15% of the assembly, but at least 12).
  • Present PM: Narendra Modi (third term since 9 June 2024) (as of Sep 2026). First PM: Jawaharlal Nehru.

D. Attorney General (Art 76)

  • The highest law officer of the Government of India. Appointed by the President; qualification = qualified to be an SC judge. No fixed term β€” holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • Art 88: right to speak and take part in both Houses of Parliament, but no right to vote. Right of audience in any court in India.
  • Counterpart in the state: Advocate General β€” Art 165. Present AG: R. Venkataramani (reappointed for 2 years from 1 Oct 2025) (as of Sep 2026).

E. Oath & Resignation β€” Quick Table

OfficeOath administered byResignation to
PresidentCJI (in his absence, the senior-most judge of the SC)Vice-President
Vice-PresidentPresidentPresident
PM & Union MinistersPresidentPresident
SC Judge / CJIPresident (or a person appointed by him)President
Lok Sabha Speaker(Takes oath as a member; the Speaker is elected)Deputy Speaker
GovernorChief Justice of the HC of that statePresident
CM & State MinistersGovernorGovernor
Offices held "during the pleasure" of the President: Governor (Art 156), Attorney General (Art 76), Union Ministers (Art 75(2) β€” in practice on the PM's advice). The Lok Sabha Speaker is not appointed by the President β€” the Lok Sabha elects him itself. CJI, army chiefs, CAG, CEC, Governor β€” all are appointed by the President.
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Pardon = Art 72 (Governor = 161); Ordinance = 123 (Governor = 213); CoM headed by PM = Art 74.
  • Head of State = President; Head of Government = PM. Do not get confused if the options have the Speaker/VP.
  • The President has no power to "adjourn" the Lok Sabha β€” he summons, prorogues and dissolves.
  • Minister without membership = 6 consecutive months (12 months / 1.5 years is wrong).
  • Is the President bound to follow the advice of the PM/CoM? Yes (Art 74(1), 42nd); he can send it back once for reconsideration (44th).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives the President the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or commutation/remission of the sentence of a person convicted of any offence? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 72
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 226
Correct answer: (A) Article 72
Q2. Who has the constitutional power to grant pardon (amnesty) in India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Army Chief
(D) Parliament
Correct answer: (A) President β€” pardoning power under Art 72.
Q3. Is the President bound to follow the advice given by the Prime Minister? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) If the Council of Ministers wants so.
(B) Yes
(C) No
(D) It is discretionary.
Correct answer: (B) Yes β€” Art 74(1) (after the 42nd Amendment 1976 the advice is binding; after the 44th it can be sent back once for reconsideration).
Q4. According to which Article of the Indian Constitution does the Prime Minister head a Council of Ministers that advises the President? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 79
(D) Article 80
Correct answer: (A) Article 74 β€” Art 75 has appointment/responsibility, Art 79 constitution of Parliament, Art 80 Rajya Sabha.
Q5. Who is the head of government in India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Correct answer: (B) Prime Minister
Q6. Which of the following officials is NOT appointed by the President of India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Chief of the Army Staff
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief of the Air Staff
Correct answer: (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha β€” the Lok Sabha elects him from among its members (Art 93).
Q7. Which of the following officials hold office during the pleasure of the President? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Governors of states and the Attorney General of India
(B) Election Commissioners
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of states
Correct answer: (A) Governors of states and the Attorney General of India β€” Art 156(1) and Art 76(4).
Q8. In India, a minister who for any period of ______ is not a member of either House of Parliament shall cease to be a minister at the end of that period. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 12 months
(B) 6 consecutive months
(C) 1.5 years
(D) 2 years
Correct answer: (B) 6 consecutive months β€” Art 75(5).
Q9. What is considered the most important core principle of parliamentary government? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Stability
(B) Checks and balances
(C) Political equality
(D) Responsibility and accountability
Correct answer: (D) Responsibility and accountability β€” parliamentary government = "responsible government". "Checks and balances" is the hallmark of the presidential (US) system.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who does not take part in the election of the President? Practice MCQ
(A) Elected members of the Lok Sabha
(B) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Elected members of the Delhi Legislative Assembly
(D) Elected members of the state legislative assemblies
Answer: (B) β€” nominated members do not take part in the election of the President, but they take part in impeachment.
P2. To whom does the Vice-President submit his resignation? Practice MCQ
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) CJI
Answer: (C)
P3. Which statement about the Attorney General of India is correct? Practice MCQ
(A) He can vote in Parliament
(B) He can speak in Parliament but cannot vote
(C) His term is 6 years
(D) He is elected by the Lok Sabha
Answer: (B) β€” Art 88.

πŸ“Œ 11. Parliament (Art 79–122) (12 min read)

Concept: Art 79: Parliament = President + Rajya Sabha (Council of States) + Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President is a part of Parliament but does not sit in either House. The Lok Sabha is the House of the people (direct election); the Rajya Sabha is the House representing the states (indirect election).

A. Lok Sabha vs Rajya Sabha

PointLok Sabha (Art 81)Rajya Sabha (Art 80)
Max strength550 elected (530 states + 20 UT); at present 543250 (238 elected + 12 nominated); at present 245
ElectionDirectly by the people (FPTP)Elected members of the state legislative assemblies β€” proportional representation, single transferable vote. Allocation of seats: 4th Schedule.
Min age25 years30 years
Term5 years (Art 83(2)); can be dissolved earlier; during a national emergency it can be extended by 1 year at a timePermanent House β€” not dissolved; 1/3 of the members retire every 2 years; term of a member 6 years
Presiding officerSpeaker (elected by the House)Chairman = Vice-President (ex-officio); Deputy Chairman from the House
Special powersMoney bill, no-confidence motion, CoM responsible to itArt 249 (resolution for a law in the national interest on a State List subject), Art 312 (new All-India Service)

Nominated (12): the President nominates experts in literature, science, art and social service (Art 80(3)) β€” inspired by Ireland. The provision for nominating 2 Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha ended in Jan 2020 by the 104th Amendment. From MP: Lok Sabha 29, Rajya Sabha 11 seats.

B. Session & Procedure Terms

TermMeaningDone by
SummonCalling the House for a sessionPresident (Art 85)
AdjournmentStopping a sitting for some hours/days β€” the session continuesSpeaker / Chairman
Adjournment sine dieStopping without fixing the next dateSpeaker / Chairman
ProrogationEnd of the sessionPresident
DissolutionEnd of the Lok Sabha, fresh elections (never the RS)President
RecessThe gap between prorogation and the re-assembly in the next sessionβ€”
  • Art 85: the gap between two sessions must not be more than 6 months. Traditional 3 sessions: Budget, Monsoon, Winter.
  • Question Hour (the first hour); Zero Hour β€” an Indian innovation (since 1962), not mentioned in the rules.
  • A no-confidence motion only in the Lok Sabha, support of at least 50 members; giving reasons is not necessary.

C. Bills

BillKey points
Ordinary BillIn either House; deadlock between the two β†’ joint sitting (Art 108) β€” presided over by the Speaker.
Money Bill (Art 110)Only in the Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the President. Whether it is a money bill or not β€” the Speaker's decision is final. The Rajya Sabha can neither amend nor reject it β€” only recommend, and must return it within 14 days (Art 109). The President cannot return it (only assent or withhold).
Financial BillArt 117 β€” not like a money bill; the RS has full power.
Constitution Amendment BillArt 368 β€” in either House; no joint sitting; the President must give assent (24th Amendment).

Joint sitting held 3 times so far: Dowry Prohibition (1961), Banking Service Commission (Repeal) (1978), POTA (2002). Budget = "Annual Financial Statement" (Art 112). Consolidated Fund Art 266; Contingency Fund Art 267.

D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Art 93–96)

  • The Lok Sabha elects him from among its members. Certifies money bills, presides over joint sittings, casting vote (Art 100) in case of a tie, decides disqualification under the 10th Schedule (defection), adjourns the House.
  • Resignation: to the Deputy Speaker. Removal: by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha, 14 days' notice. Even when the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker stays in office until the first sitting of the new House.
  • First Speaker: G.V. Mavalankar. Present: Om Birla (since 2019; re-elected on 26 June 2024) (as of Sep 2026).

E. Parliamentary Committees (Financial Committees)

CommitteeMembersWork
Public Accounts Committee22 (15 LS + 7 RS)Examines the CAG's report; chairman traditionally from the opposition
Estimates Committee30 (all LS)Examines budget estimates, suggests economies β€” the largest committee
Committee on Public Undertakings22 (15 LS + 7 RS)Examines reports and accounts of PSUs

All these are Parliamentary Committees (not Cabinet committees). Members are elected every year by proportional representation; ministers cannot be members.

⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Term of an RS member 6 years; RS nominated = 12; money bill with the RS max 14 days; max gap between two sessions 6 months.
  • Adjourn = Speaker; Prorogue = President. "President's power over the House" = Prorogue.
  • Both the Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad have nomination and indirect election β€” the real difference: the RS takes part in the impeachment of the President (and the resolution to remove the VP starts in the RS); the Vidhan Parishad does not.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. What is the term (in years) of members of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) in India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) For life
Correct answer: (C) 6 years
Q2. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 16
Correct answer: (B) 12
Q3. Which is a feature that distinguishes the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council)? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Power of impeachment
(B) Indirect election
(C) Nomination of members
(D) Term of membership
Correct answer: (A) Power of impeachment β€” indirect election, nomination and a 6-year term are the same in both.
Q4. Under which category is the Committee on Public Undertakings in India classified? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Cabinet committee
(B) Parliamentary committee
(C) Committee of a political party
(D) Sachdeva committee
Correct answer: (B) Parliamentary committee
Q5. Whose responsibility is the adjournment of the House (Lok Sabha)? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) President
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Council of Ministers
Correct answer: (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q6. The President is NOT authorised to ______ the Lok Sabha. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) dissolve
(B) adjourn
(C) prorogue
(D) summon
Correct answer: (B) adjourn β€” this is done by the Speaker.
Q7. What is the maximum gap that can exist between two sessions of the Indian Parliament? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 3 months
(B) 4 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 12 months
Correct answer: (C) 6 months β€” Art 85(1).
Q8. Which power over the House does the President of India have? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Adjournment (Sine die)
(B) Prorogation (Prorogue)
(C) Adjourn
(D) None of these
Correct answer: (B) Prorogation (Prorogue) β€” Art 85(2)(a).
Q9. For at most how long can the Council of States delay a Money Bill? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Indefinitely
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 month
(D) 14 days
Correct answer: (D) 14 days β€” Art 109.
Q10. When the word "recess" is used in the context of a legislature, what is its definition? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) The interval between the prorogation (end of session) of Parliament and its re-summoning
(B) Parliament being in session
(C) Adjournment of the House
(D) Dissolution of the House
Correct answer: (A)
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who presides over a joint sitting of Parliament (Art 108)? Practice MCQ
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
P2. Who finally decides whether a bill is a money bill or not? Practice MCQ
(A) President
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (C) β€” Art 110(3).
P3. Which parliamentary committee examines the CAG's report? Practice MCQ
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee of Privileges
Answer: (B)

πŸ“Œ 12. Judiciary β€” Supreme Court, High Courts, Judicial Review, PIL (10 min read)

Concept: India has an integrated judiciary β€” the Supreme Court at the top, then the High Courts, then district/subordinate courts. Because it settles disputes between the Centre and the States in a federal system and interprets the Constitution, the judiciary is called the "guardian of the Constitution".

A. Supreme Court (Art 124–147)

  • Art 124: establishment and constitution of the SC. Inaugurated: 28 January 1950 (in place of the Federal Court). Seat: Delhi (Art 130).
  • Strength: CJI + 7 in the original Constitution. By the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act 2026 it is now CJI + 37 = 38 (it was 34 from 2019) (as of Sep 2026). The power to increase the number lies with Parliament.
  • Appointment: by the President β€” in practice on the recommendation of the collegium (CJI + 4 senior-most judges) (Second Judges case 1993). The NJAC (99th Amendment) was struck down by the SC in 2015.
  • Qualifications: citizen + 5 years as HC judge / 10 years as HC advocate / a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President. Retirement age 65 years (HC: 62).
  • Removal (Art 124(4)): "proved misbehaviour or incapacity" β€” in each House, a majority of the total membership + 2/3 of those present and voting; then an order of the President. Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
  • Present CJI: Justice Surya Kant (53rd CJI, since 24 Nov 2025) (as of Sep 2026). First CJI: H.J. Kania.
JurisdictionArticleMeaning
Original131Centre-State or State-State disputes go directly to the SC
Writ (FR)325 writs for violation of FR
Appellate132–134Constitutional, civil, criminal appeals from the HC
Special Leave Petition136Appeal by special leave against the decision of any court/tribunal
Advisory143The President can seek the SC's opinion on a question of law/fact (the opinion is not binding) β€” from Canada
Court of Record129 (HC: 215)Can punish for its own contempt
Review / Binding law / Complete justice137 / 141 / 142Review of its own judgments; law declared by the SC is binding on all courts; orders for "complete justice"

B. High Court (Art 214–231)

  • Art 214: a HC for each state. Art 231: a common HC for two or more states. There are 25 High Courts in the country (as of Sep 2026). Oldest: Calcutta HC (1862).
  • Art 217: appointment by the President (in consultation with the CJI and the Governor). Art 224: additional/acting judges. Art 226: writs (FR + other rights). Art 227: superintendence over subordinate courts.
  • Judge's oath: administered by the Governor (or a person appointed by him); resignation: to the President.

C. Judicial Review & PIL

  • Judicial review = if the court finds a law or executive order against the Constitution, it can declare it unconstitutional (void). Basis: Art 13, 32, 226. Taken from the USA (Marbury v Madison 1803). It is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
  • PIL (Public Interest Litigation): any aware person/organisation can go to court in the interest of others (the poor, prisoners, labourers) β€” the rule of "locus standi" is relaxed. Credit goes to Justice P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer. The principle was strengthened in the S.P. Gupta case (1981). Even a post card/letter was treated as a writ petition (epistolary jurisdiction).
  • Lok Adalat: statutory status by the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987; its decision is final, no appeal.
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Establishment of the SC = Art 124 (Art 214 = HC; Art 231 = common HC; Art 224 = additional judges).
  • Original = 131; Advisory = 143; Art 142 = complete justice; Art 147 = interpretation β€” these keep rotating in the options.
  • Guardian of the Constitution in a federal system = Judiciary (not Parliament).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 147
Correct answer: (C) Article 143
Q2. In which Article is the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court vested? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 129
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 136
Correct answer: (A) Article 131
Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court of India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 124
(C) Article 224
(D) Article 231
Correct answer: (B) Article 124
Q4. Who is the guardian of the Constitution in a federal system? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) National Security Advisor
Correct answer: (B) Judiciary
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. At what age do High Court judges retire? Practice MCQ
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 65
(D) 70
Answer: (B) 62 (SC: 65)
P2. Which Article provides for a common High Court for two or more states? Practice MCQ
(A) 214
(B) 226
(C) 231
(D) 124
Answer: (C) 231

πŸ“Œ 13. State Executive & Legislature β€” Governor, Chief Minister, Vidhan Sabha (Part VI) (8 min read)

Concept: The states also have a parliamentary structure like the Centre: Governor = constitutional (nominal) head of the state (like the President), CM = head of the real executive (like the PM). The Governor is appointed by the Centre (the President) β€” so he is also a link between the Centre and the State.

A. Governor

ArticleProvision
153A Governor for each state; one person can be Governor of 2+ states (7th Amendment 1956)
154The executive power of the state is vested in the Governor
155–156Appointed by the President; holds office during the pleasure of the President; normally 5 years
157Qualifications: citizen, 35 years
160Discharge of the Governor's functions in contingencies (like death/resignation) β€” the President makes the arrangement
161Pardoning power (cannot pardon a death sentence)
163Council of Ministers to advise (except in some matters of discretion)
164The CM is appointed by the Governor; the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Vidhan Sabha; without membership, 6 consecutive months
165Advocate General
200On a bill passed by the legislature: assent / withhold / return for reconsideration (if not a money bill) / reserve for the consideration of the President
201President's decision on a reserved bill
213Issuing an Ordinance when the legislature is not in session

Oath: administered by the Chief Justice of the HC of that state. On the death/resignation of a Governor, arrangements are made under Art 160 β€” sometimes the Chief Justice of the HC is sworn in as acting Governor, and sometimes the Governor of a neighbouring state is given additional charge.

B. Chief Minister & Legislature

  • The CM is appointed by the Governor (leader of the majority party in the assembly). Art 167: the CM communicates the decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor. The CM and the Council of Ministers are responsible to the Vidhan Sabha.
  • Art 168: state legislature = Governor + one or two Houses. Art 169: the Vidhan Parishad is created/abolished by Parliament by law, when the Vidhan Sabha passes a resolution by special majority.
  • States with a Vidhan Parishad: 6 β€” Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka (as of Sep 2026).
  • Art 170: 60–500 members in the Vidhan Sabha. Art 171: Vidhan Parishad max 1/3 of the Vidhan Sabha, min 40. The Vidhan Parishad is a permanent House, member's term 6 years.
  • The Vidhan Parishad too can hold a money bill for only 14 days (Art 198).
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Ordinance in a state = Governor (Art 213) β€” not the President or the CM.
  • Governor = constitutional head (not the real head, not hereditary).
  • CM responsible to = Vidhan Sabha (he holds office during the Governor's pleasure, but his responsibility is to the House).
  • Reserving a bill for the President = Art 200.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. When the state legislature is NOT in session, who has the power to issue ordinances in Indian states? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice
Correct answer: (A) Governor β€” Art 213.
Q2. What is the constitutional role of the Governor in an Indian state? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Constitutional head
(B) Real head
(C) Hereditary head
(D) Nominated head
Correct answer: (A) Constitutional head
Q3. When the Governor of a state dies or resigns, who normally discharges his duties until a new Governor is appointed? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Chief Justice of the High Court
(B) Advocate General of the state
(C) Secretary General of the Governor
(D) A person nominated by the state cabinet
Correct answer: (A) Chief Justice of the High Court β€” arrangement under Art 160; among the given options this is correct. (In practice, the Governor of a neighbouring state is also given additional charge.)
Q4. To whom is the Chief Minister of a state responsible? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly)
(D) Governor
Correct answer: (C) Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly) β€” Art 164(2).
Q5. Under which Article does the Governor of a state have the power to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 196
(B) Article 200
(C) Article 202
(D) Article 204
Correct answer: (B) Article 200 β€” Art 202 = state budget (annual financial statement); Art 204 = Appropriation Bill.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who administers the oath to the Governor? Practice MCQ
(A) President
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
(D) CJI
Answer: (C)
P2. Who has the power to create or abolish a Vidhan Parishad? Practice MCQ
(A) Governor
(B) Parliament (on the resolution of the Vidhan Sabha)
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Answer: (B) β€” Art 169.

πŸ“Œ 14. Polity of Madhya Pradesh (MP Polity β€” Special) (6 min read)

🟒 MP β€” Seats & Legislature (as per the current Delimitation Order)
ItemNumber
Vidhan Sabha seats230 (SC reserved 35, ST reserved 47)
Lok Sabha seats (from MP)29 (SC 4, ST 6)
Rajya Sabha seats (from MP)11
HousesUnicameral β€” only the Vidhan Sabha. (The name "Madhya Pradesh" was added to Art 168 by the 7th Amendment 1956, but a Vidhan Parishad was never formed in MP.)
  • Vidhan Sabha building: Bhopal. Present: 16th Vidhan Sabha (since Dec 2023).
  • Firsts: Governor Dr. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya; CM Pt. Ravishankar Shukla; Speaker Pt. Kunjilal Dubey.
  • Present (as of Sep 2026): Governor Mangubhai C. Patel (since 8 July 2021); CM Dr. Mohan Yadav (since 13 Dec 2023); Vidhan Sabha Speaker Narendra Singh Tomar (since 20 Dec 2023).
🟒 MP High Court
  • Origin: Nagpur High Court β€” on 2 January 1936 under Letters Patent (GoI Act 1935).
  • After the reorganisation of states, Madhya Pradesh High Court from 1 November 1956, principal seat: Jabalpur.
  • Benches: Indore and Gwalior β€” temporary from 1 Nov 1956, permanent from 28 November 1968.
  • Present Chief Justice: Justice Alpesh Y. Kogje (sworn in on 10 Sep 2026) (as of Sep 2026).
🟒 Formation of MP & the old states (in detail in Topic 5)
1 Nov 1956: Madhya Pradesh + Madhya Bharat + Vindhya Pradesh + Bhopal β†’ new MP; all four assemblies merged into one. First and last session of the first MP Vidhan Sabha: 17 Dec 1956 – 17 Jan 1957. 1 Nov 2000: Chhattisgarh separated (MP Reorganisation Act 2000).
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • MP Vidhan Sabha 230; LS 29; RS 11 β€” do not mix up these three numbers. ST-reserved VS seats (47) are more than SC (35).
  • The principal seat of the MP HC is Jabalpur, not Bhopal. Benches: Indore, Gwalior.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. How many seats are there in total in the Madhya Pradesh Vidhan Sabha? Practice MCQ
(A) 220
(B) 230
(C) 240
(D) 320
Answer: (B) 230
P2. Where are the benches of the Madhya Pradesh High Court? Practice MCQ
(A) Bhopal and Indore
(B) Indore and Gwalior
(C) Gwalior and Rewa
(D) Bhopal and Gwalior
Answer: (B) β€” principal seat Jabalpur.
P3. How many members go to the Rajya Sabha from Madhya Pradesh? Practice MCQ
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 16
Answer: (C) 11 (before 2000 there were 16)
P4. Who was the first Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh? Practice MCQ
(A) Pt. Ravishankar Shukla
(B) Dr. Kailash Nath Katju
(C) Bhagwantrao Mandloi
(D) Dwarka Prasad Mishra
Answer: (A)

πŸ“Œ 15. Panchayati Raj & Urban Local Bodies (73rd & 74th Amendment, PESA) (10 min read)

Concept: Panchayati Raj = grassroots democracy β€” village people take decisions about their own development. Art 40 (DPSP) asked for village panchayats to be organised, but constitutional status came with the 73rd Amendment of 1992. Lord Ripon (resolution of 1882) is called the "Father of local self-government".

A. Timeline β€” asked very often

YearEvent
2 Oct 1952Community Development Programme started; National Extension Service in 1953
1957Balwant Rai Mehta Committee β€” recommended a 3-tier system: Gram Panchayat (village) – Panchayat Samiti (block) – Zila Parishad (district); "democratic decentralisation"
2 Oct 1959Rajasthan (Nagaur district) β€” the first state to implement Panchayati Raj (inaugurated by PM Nehru); followed by Andhra Pradesh
1977Ashok Mehta Committee β€” 2-tier (Mandal Panchayat + Zila Parishad), participation of political parties
1985G.V.K. Rao Committee
1986L.M. Singhvi Committee β€” recommended constitutional status for panchayats
198964th Amendment Bill β€” defeated in the Rajya Sabha
199273rd Amendment Act (Panchayat) β€” in force 24 April 1993 (this day is "National Panchayati Raj Day"); 74th (Municipality) β€” in force 1 June 1993
1996PESA Act β€” Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act; for 5th Schedule areas (recommended by the Dilip Singh Bhuria Committee)

B. 73rd Amendment β€” Main Provisions (Part IX, Art 243–243O, 11th Schedule)

  • 243A: Gram Sabha (all registered voters of the village). 243B: 3-tier panchayats (states with a population below 20 lakh may skip the intermediate level).
  • 243D: Reservation β€” for SC/ST in proportion to their population; at least 1/3 of the seats for women (also in chairperson posts).
  • 243E: term 5 years; if dissolved, election within 6 months.
  • 243I: State Finance Commission β€” every 5 years (constituted by the Governor). 243K: State Election Commission β€” conducts panchayat elections; 243ZA β€” it conducts municipal elections too.
  • 11th Schedule β€” 29 subjects. Minimum age to contest elections 21 years.

C. 74th Amendment β€” Urban Local Bodies (Part IXA, Art 243P–243ZG, 12th Schedule)

  • 3 types: Nagar Panchayat (transitional area), Nagar Palika Parishad (smaller towns), Nagar Nigam (big cities).
  • Ward committees (3 lakh+ population), District Planning Committee (243ZD), Metropolitan Planning Committee (243ZE). 12th Schedule β€” 18 subjects.
🟒 MP and Panchayati Raj (re-verified)
  • In line with the 73rd Amendment, the MP Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam 1993 was made (Governor's assent 24 Jan 1994; notified on 25 Jan 1994).
  • Correct wording: MP became the first state to hold panchayat elections (May–June 1994) and implement the 3-tier system under the new 73rd Amendment framework. (Note: the state that first implemented Panchayati Raj is Rajasthan (1959) β€” the two are different questions!)
  • By the 2001 amendment the name became "MP Panchayat Raj Evam Gram Swaraj Adhiniyam, 1993"; gram swaraj system from 26 January 2001.
  • In MP, women get 50% reservation in panchayats (by the 2007 amendment).
  • PESA in MP: MP PESA Rules implemented on 15 November 2022 (Janjatiya Gaurav Divas) at Shahdol β€” 89 tribal blocks in 20 districts. There are 10 states in the country with PESA (5th Schedule) areas.
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Recommendation of 3-tier = Balwant Rai Mehta (1957); the 1977 committee = Ashok Mehta (2-tier). The names are similar!
  • Panchayat/municipal elections = State Election Commission (not the Election Commission of India).
  • Community Development Programme = 2 Oct 1952 (not 1951/1953).
  • Subjects of panchayats = 11th Schedule (29); municipalities = 12th Schedule (18).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Which of the following states first implemented the Panchayati Raj system? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
Correct answer: (A) Rajasthan β€” Nagaur, 2 Oct 1959.
Q2. On which date was the Community Development Programme started? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 2 October 1951
(B) 2 October 1952
(C) 2 October 1953
(D) 2 October 1954
Correct answer: (B) 2 October 1952
Q3. Grassroots democracy is related to which level of political administration? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Panchayat system
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Lokpal
(D) Regionalism
Correct answer: (A) Panchayat system
Q4. Who proposed the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Royal Commission
(D) None of these
Correct answer: (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957)
Q5. Who conducts the elections to panchayats and municipalities? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Local bodies
(D) State Government
Correct answer: (B) State Election Commission β€” Art 243K, 243ZA.
Q6. Who chaired the committee set up in 1977 to review the working of Panchayati Raj institutions? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta
(B) Ashok Mehta
(C) G.V.K. Rao
(D) L.M. Singhvi
Correct answer: (B) Ashok Mehta
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. When did the 73rd Constitutional Amendment come into force? Practice MCQ
(A) 2 October 1992
(B) 24 April 1993
(C) 1 June 1993
(D) 26 January 1994
Answer: (B) β€” 1 June 1993 = 74th.
P2. Which was the first state to hold panchayat elections under the new law after the 73rd Amendment? Practice MCQ
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh (1994)
P3. When and where were the PESA Rules implemented in Madhya Pradesh? Practice MCQ
(A) 15 November 2022, Shahdol
(B) 26 January 2001, Bhopal
(C) 24 April 1993, Jhabua
(D) 2 October 2022, Mandla
Answer: (A)

πŸ“Œ 16. Centre-State Relations (Part XI, XII) (10 min read)

Concept: The basis for calling a government unitary or federal is the distribution of powers. If all power is with one central government β†’ unitary; if the constitution divides power between the Centre and the States β†’ federal. In India this division is made through the 3 lists of the 7th Schedule.

A. Legislative Relations (Art 245–255)

ListWho makes lawsExamples
Union List β€” originally 97 subjectsOnly ParliamentDefence, foreign affairs, railways, banking, atomic energy, currency
State List β€” originally 66 subjectsState legislature (exclusive power)Public order, police (entry 2), public health & sanitation (entry 6), agriculture, land, prisons, local government
Concurrent List β€” originally 47 subjectsBoth (in case of conflict the Central law prevails β€” Art 254)Criminal law, marriage-divorce, education, forests, wildlife, weights and measures, administration of justice (these 5 subjects were moved from the State to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment 1976)
  • Art 248: Residuary powers β€” with Parliament/the Centre (Canada model). (In the USA, residuary powers are with the states.)
  • Parliament can make laws even on the State List: Art 249 (2/3 resolution of the RS), Art 250 (national emergency), Art 252 (request of 2+ states), Art 253 (international treaty), Art 356 (President's rule).

B. Administrative & Financial Relations

  • Art 256–257: states must comply with Central laws; the Centre can give directions. Art 365: if directions are not followed, Art 356 can be imposed.
  • Art 263: Inter-State Council β€” can be set up by the President. Set up in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission; chairman PM; all CMs are members.
  • Art 275: grants-in-aid from the Centre to the states β€” on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. Art 282: discretionary grants.
  • Art 280: Finance Commission β€” distribution of tax revenue between the Centre and the States.

C. Commissions & Councils

BodyFacts
Sarkaria CommissionSet up in 1983, report 1988 β€” Centre-State relations
Punchhi Commission (Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi)Set up on 27 April 2007, report March 2010 β€” Centre-State relations
Planning CommissionOn 15 March 1950 by a resolution of the Union Cabinet β€” non-constitutional, non-statutory; chairman PM. Replaced by NITI Aayog from 1 Jan 2015.
National Development CouncilSet up on 6 August 1952; chairman PM; CMs of all states, Union Cabinet ministers and members of the Planning Commission β€” it gave final approval to the Five Year Plans.
NITI Aayog1 Jan 2015; chairman PM; Governing Council has all CMs and the Lt. Governors of UTs.
Zonal CouncilsBy the States Reorganisation Act 1956 (statutory); 5 councils; chairman Union Home Minister. MP is in the Central Zonal Council.
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Residuary = Centre; exclusive to states = State List; both = Concurrent List.
  • Public health & sanitation, police = State List (not Concurrent).
  • Recommendation for grants-in-aid = Finance Commission (not the Planning Commission / NDC).
  • NDC = 1952 and chairman PM; Planning Commission = 1950. The Inter-State Council is set up by the President (Art 263).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. What was the purpose of appointing the Madan Mohan Punchhi Commission? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Centre-State relations
(B) Reorganisation of states
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Delimitation of constituencies
Correct answer: (A) Centre-State relations
Q2. In which year was the National Development Council set up? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1947
Correct answer: (C) 1952 (6 August 1952)
Q3. Who is the chairman of the National Development Council? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Vice-President
(D) Governor
Correct answer: (A) Prime Minister
Q4. On what basis is a government classified as unitary or federal? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Centralisation of powers
(B) Division or distribution of powers
(C) Delegation of powers
(D) Separation of powers
Correct answer: (B) Division or distribution of powers β€” "separation of powers" is between the legislature, executive and judiciary; it is the basis of parliamentary/presidential systems.
Q5. In India, under the federal system, with which authority do the residuary powers lie? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Local government
(B) States
(C) Judiciary
(D) Centre
Correct answer: (D) Centre β€” Art 248.
Q6. In which list of the Constitution of India is "public health and sanitation" included? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) None of these
Correct answer: (B) State List β€” State List entry 6.
Q7. In which year did the Government of India set up the Planning Commission through a resolution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) 1950
(B) 1947
(C) 1944
(D) 1946
Correct answer: (A) 1950 (15 March 1950)
Q8. On which subjects do the states in India have exclusive legislative power? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Residuary List
(D) Concurrent List
Correct answer: (B) State List
Q9. On whose recommendations does the Union Government give grants to the states? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Integration Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) National Development Council
Correct answer: (C) Finance Commission β€” Art 275 + Art 280(3).
Q10. Which list contains the subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Residuary List
(D) Concurrent List
Correct answer: (D) Concurrent List
Q11. Which of the following has the power to set up the Inter-State Council? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission
Correct answer: (B) President β€” Art 263.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. When was the Sarkaria Commission set up? Practice MCQ
(A) 1977
(B) 1983
(C) 1990
(D) 2007
Answer: (B) 1983
P2. By the 42nd Amendment, "education" was transferred to which list? Practice MCQ
(A) State to Union
(B) State to Concurrent
(C) Union to Concurrent
(D) Concurrent to State
Answer: (B)

πŸ“Œ 17. Emergency Provisions (Part XVIII, Art 352–360) (7 min read)

Concept: Emergency provisions exist to give the Centre more power in times of crisis (from the GoI Act 1935; suspension of FR β€” from Germany/Weimar). During an emergency, India's federal system changes into a unitary one β€” that is why the Constitution is called "unitary in a crisis".
PointNational Emergency (Art 352)President's Rule (Art 356)Financial Emergency (Art 360)
GroundsWar, external aggression, armed rebellion (the 44th replaced "internal disturbance")Failure of constitutional machinery in a state (Governor's report or otherwise); Art 365Threat to the financial stability or credit of India/any part
Parliament's approvalWithin 1 month, special majorityWithin 2 months, simple majorityWithin 2 months, simple majority
Duration6 months at a time, unlimited6 months at a time, max 3 years (beyond 1 year only if there is a national emergency + ECI certificate)Until it is revoked
When imposed1962 (China), 1971 (Pakistan), 1975 (internal disturbance)First in Punjab 1951; the S.R. Bommai case (1994) put checks on itNever
  • A proclamation under Art 352 only on the written advice of the Cabinet (44th). Art 358: in case of war/aggression, Art 19 is automatically suspended. Art 359: the President can suspend the right to move court for enforcing other FR β€” not Art 20, 21.
  • Effects of Art 360: the salaries and allowances of any class of employees of the Centre and the states can be reduced β€” including SC/HC judges; money bills of the states can be reserved for the consideration of the President.
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Failure of constitutional machinery = 356; national = 352; financial = 360; Art 365 = not following the Centre's directions.
  • Federal β†’ unitary = Art 352 (Art 368 is amendment, Art 371 special provisions).
  • President's rule without a break max 3 years. A financial emergency has never been imposed so far.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. When a financial emergency is declared, ______. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) When the Union Budget will not be presented.
(B) When the salaries and allowances of any class of employees can be reduced.
(C) When repayment of government loans will stop.
(D) When payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed.
Correct answer: (B) β€” Art 360(4).
Q2. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President take over the administration of a state when its constitutional machinery fails? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Article 365
(B) Article 352
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 360
Correct answer: (C) Article 356
Q3. In India, for what maximum period can President's rule remain in force in a state without a break? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 4 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 1 year
Correct answer: (C) 3 years
Q4. Under which Article can India's federal system be changed into a unitary system? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 352
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 371
Correct answer: (B) Article 352 β€” during a national emergency Parliament can make laws on the State List and the Centre can give directions to the states on any matter.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. How many times has a National Emergency been declared in India so far? Practice MCQ
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C) 3 β€” 1962, 1971, 1975.
P2. Within how much time must Parliament approve a proclamation of National Emergency? Practice MCQ
(A) 1 month
(B) 2 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 14 days
Answer: (A) 1 month (after the 44th)

πŸ“Œ 18. Constitutional Amendment (Art 368), Basic Structure & Major Amendments (10 min read)

Concept: The Constitution has to change with time, but it should not be so easy that every government can change it as it likes. So Art 368 (Part XX) keeps different levels of difficulty for different parts β€” this is what makes the Constitution "a mix of rigid and flexible". The procedure is inspired by South Africa.

A. 3 Methods of Amendment

TypeHowExamples
1. Simple majority (outside Art 368)Like an ordinary lawNew state/boundary/name (Art 2, 3), Vidhan Parishad (169), citizenship, 5th/6th Schedule
2. Special majority (Art 368(2))Majority of the total membership of each House + 2/3 of those present and votingMost provisions β€” FR, DPSP etc.
3. Special majority + ratification by half of the statesThe above + at least half of the state legislatures by simple majorityFederal structure: election of the President, 7th Schedule, representation of states in Parliament, SC/HC, Art 368 itself, GST Council
  • An amendment bill only in Parliament (in either House), can be introduced by a minister or a private member; prior permission of the President is not required; no joint sitting; the President must give assent (24th Amendment 1971).

B. Basic Structure β€” Case Timeline

CaseJudgment
Shankari Prasad (1951)Parliament can amend even FR
Golaknath (1967)Parliament cannot abridge/take away FR
Kesavananda Bharati (1973)13-judge bench, 7:6 β€” Parliament can amend anything but not the "basic structure"
Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain (1975)Free and fair elections are basic structure
Minerva Mills (1980)Limited amending power of Parliament, judicial review, FR-DPSP balance β€” basic structure

Basic features: supremacy of the Constitution, federalism, secularism, separation of powers, independence of the judiciary, judicial review, FR, democracy, free elections, rule of law, parliamentary system. The right of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution without question is NOT a basic feature β€” on the contrary, limited amending power is a basic feature.

C. Major Amendments (Most Important)

AmendmentYearMain point
1st19519th Schedule (Art 31B), Art 15(4), new restrictions on Art 19
7th1956States reorganisation β€” A/B/C/D categories ended, 14 states + 6 UTs
21st1967Sindhi added to the 8th Schedule
24th1971President's assent to amendment bills made compulsory; Parliament can amend even FR
36th1975Sikkim a full state
42nd1976"Mini Constitution" β€” Socialist, Secular, Integrity in the Preamble; Fundamental Duties (Part IVA); 5 subjects from State to Concurrent; Art 39A, 43A, 48A; Tribunals (Part XIVA); Art 74(1) advice made binding. (Swaran Singh Committee)
44th1978Property removed from FR (Art 300A); "internal disturbance" β†’ "armed rebellion"; Art 20-21 not suspended in emergency; President can return advice once
52nd1985Anti-defection β€” 10th Schedule
61st1988 (in force 28 March 1989)Voting age 21 β†’ 18 years (Art 326)
69th1991NCT status for Delhi, legislative assembly (Art 239AA)
71st1992Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali added to the 8th Schedule
73rd / 74th1992 (in force 1993)Panchayat (Part IX, 11th Sch) / Municipality (Part IXA, 12th Sch)
86th2002Art 21A (education of 6–14 years as FR), Art 45 changed, 51A(k) 11th FD
91st2003 (in force 1 Jan 2004)Council of Ministers max 15%; exemption for "split" under anti-defection removed
92nd2003 (in force 2004)Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali β€” 22 languages in the 8th Schedule
97th2011 (in force 12 Jan 2012)Co-operative societies β€” Art 19(1)(c), Art 43B, Part IXB
101st2016GST (Art 246A, 279A GST Council) β€” GST from 1 July 2017
102nd2018Constitutional status for NCBC (Art 338B)
103rd201910% reservation for EWS (Art 15(6), 16(6))
104th2019 (in force Jan 2020)SC/ST reservation (LS/VS) extended by 10 years; Anglo-Indian nomination ended
105th2021Power of states to make their own OBC lists restored
106th2023Nari Shakti Vandan β€” 1/3 reservation for women in the Lok Sabha, state assemblies and the Delhi assembly (Art 330A, 332A, 239AA); notification for bringing it into force issued on 16 April 2026 (reservation effective after the next delimitation)

Total amendments: 106 (as of Sep 2026). In April 2026 the 131st Constitution Amendment Bill 2026, related to increasing LS seats/delimitation, was defeated in the Lok Sabha for not getting the required special majority (17 April 2026; 298 in favour, 230 against).

⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • Most provisions are amended by β€” Parliament through a special procedure (not only with the consent of the states; not the President/PM).
  • 42nd = 1976 (not 1977). The 61st is an Act of 1988 (in force 1989) β€” writing "61st (1989)" is incomplete.
  • "Unquestioned right of Parliament to amend any part" is not a basic feature.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Most provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by whom? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 17 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) By Parliament through a special procedure (constitutional amendment)
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Only with the consent of the state legislatures
Correct answer: (A) β€” special majority, Art 368(2).
Q2. What kind of constitution does the amendment procedure under Article 368 make it? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 19 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Only rigid
(B) Only flexible
(C) A mix of both rigid and flexible
(D) Neither rigid nor flexible
Correct answer: (C) A mix of both rigid and flexible
Q3. Which of the following is NOT among the basic features of the Constitution of India? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Federalism
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Independence of the judiciary
(D) The right of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution without question
Correct answer: (D) β€” after Kesavananda Bharati (1973), Parliament cannot change the basic structure.
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. By which amendment was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years? Practice MCQ
(A) 52nd
(B) 61st
(C) 73rd
(D) 42nd
Answer: (B) β€” 61st Amendment Act 1988.
P2. By which amendment was the anti-defection law (10th Schedule) added? Practice MCQ
(A) 44th
(B) 52nd
(C) 61st
(D) 91st
Answer: (B) 52nd (1985)
P3. By which constitutional amendment was GST introduced? Practice MCQ
(A) 100th
(B) 101st
(C) 102nd
(D) 103rd
Answer: (B) 101st

πŸ“Œ 19. Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (ECI, UPSC, CAG, Finance Commission, NHRC...) (10 min read)

Concept: Constitutional bodies β€” those mentioned in some Article of the Constitution (ECI, UPSC, CAG, FC). Statutory bodies β€” those created by a law of Parliament (NHRC, CVC, Lokpal). Executive bodies β€” created by a government resolution (Planning Commission, NITI Aayog, NDC).

A. Constitutional Bodies

BodyArticleKey facts
Election Commission of India324Established 25 Jan 1950 (this day is National Voters' Day). Elections to Parliament, state legislatures, President, VP. Multi-member since 1993 (CEC + 2 ECs). CEC & ECs Act 2023: selection committee β€” PM, a Union Cabinet minister, LoP in the Lok Sabha; term 6 years or 65 years of age. The CEC can be removed only like an SC judge. Present CEC: Gyanesh Kumar (26th, since 19 Feb 2025) (as of Sep 2026).
UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)315–323Chairman and members appointed by the President (Art 316); the number of members and their conditions of service are decided by the President through regulations (Art 318); term 6 years or 65 years. Removal β€” by the President (Art 317). Present chairman: Dr. Ajay Kumar (since 15 May 2025) (as of Sep 2026). State PSC: appointed by the Governor (age limit 62), but can be removed only by the President.
CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General)148–151"Guardian of the public purse"; appointed by the President; 6 years or 65 years; removed like an SC judge. Report on the Union's accounts to the President β†’ Parliament (the PAC examines it). Present: K. Sanjay Murthy (since Nov 2024) (as of Sep 2026).
Finance Commission280Constituted by the President every 5 years: chairman + 4 members. Qualifications are decided by Parliament β€” Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1951. First FC (1951): K.C. Neogy. 16th FC: chairman Arvind Panagariya (constituted on 31 Dec 2023); report (for 2026–31) submitted on 17 Nov 2025, tabled in Parliament on 1 Feb 2026; states' share kept at 41% (as of Sep 2026).
Attorney General / Advocate General76 / 165See Topic 10
NCSC / NCST / NCBC338 / 338A / 338B338A β€” 89th Amendment (2003); 338B β€” 102nd (2018)
Commission to investigate backward classes340Appointed by the President β€” e.g. Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953), Mandal Commission (1979)
State Election Commission / State FC243K / 243IPanchayat-municipal elections / state finances
GST Council279A101st Amendment; chairman Union Finance Minister

B. Statutory / Other Bodies

BodyFacts
NHRC (National Human Rights Commission)Protection of Human Rights Act 1993; established 12 Oct 1993; chairman β€” a former CJI or SC judge. Present chairman: Justice V. Ramasubramanian (as of Sep 2026). State Human Rights Commissions in the states (MP SHRC too).
CVC (Central Vigilance Commission)1964 (Santhanam Committee) β€” statutory by the CVC Act 2003
CBIUnder the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946; neither constitutional nor statutory (name from a 1963 resolution)
LokpalLokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013; first Lokpal Justice P.C. Ghose (2019)
National Commission for WomenSet up in 1992 under the NCW Act 1990
⚠️ Exam Traps:
  • The chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the President (not the PM/Parliament); qualifications = FC Act 1951.
  • ECI = Art 324; UPSC = 315; CAG = 148; FC = 280; Backward classes commission = 340.
  • Number of UPSC members = President (Art 318) β€” not the Home Ministry/Cabinet Secretary.
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Who is responsible for appointing the chairman of the Finance Commission? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Vice-President
Correct answer: (A) President
Q2. The Finance Commission is appointed every five years by _____. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Correct answer: (A) President β€” Art 280(1).
Q3. Where are the qualifications of the chairman and members of the Finance Commission specified? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Finance Commission Act 1951
(B) Finance Commission Act 1952
(C) Finance Commission Act 1950
(D) Finance Commission Act 1953
Correct answer: (A) Finance Commission Act 1951 β€” Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1951 (under Art 280(2)).
Q4. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes and suggest remedial measures? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 342
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 340
(D) Article 339
Correct answer: (C) Article 340
Q5. Which of the following authorities has the constitutional power to make rules and regulations regarding the number of members of the UPSC? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Vice-President
(B) President
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) Cabinet Secretary
Correct answer: (B) President β€” Art 318.
Q6. The Constitution of India provides for the Election Commission under Article ____. MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 21 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) 321
(B) 322
(C) 323
(D) 324
Correct answer: (D) 324
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who is the chairman of the 16th Finance Commission? Practice MCQ
(A) N.K. Singh
(B) Arvind Panagariya
(C) Y.V. Reddy
(D) Vijay Kelkar
Answer: (B) β€” N.K. Singh was the chairman of the 15th FC.
P2. Under which Act is the NHRC constituted? Practice MCQ
(A) Protection of Human Rights Act 1993
(B) Article 338 of the Constitution
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955
(D) Lokpal Act 2013
Answer: (A) β€” the NHRC is a statutory body.
P3. On which date is National Voters' Day celebrated? Practice MCQ
(A) 26 January
(B) 25 January
(C) 26 November
(D) 24 April
Answer: (B) 25 January β€” foundation day of the ECI.

πŸ“Œ 20. Official Language & 8th Schedule (Part XVII, Art 343–351) (5 min read)

ArticleProvision
343Official language of the Union: Hindi, script Devanagari; numerals β€” international form of Indian numerals; English to continue for 15 years (continued beyond that by the Official Languages Act 1963)
344Official Language Commission and parliamentary committee (first commission: B.G. Kher, 1955)
345Official language(s) of a state β€” adopted by the state legislature by law
346–347Language of communication between states and the Centre; special provision for the language spoken by a section of the population
348Language of the SC, HCs and laws β€” English (until Parliament provides otherwise)
350A / 350BPrimary education in the mother tongue / Special officer for linguistic minorities
351Directive for the development of the Hindi language

On 14 September 1949 the Constituent Assembly adopted Hindi as the official language β€” hence 14 Sep = Hindi Divas.

8th Schedule β€” 22 Languages

  • Originally 14 languages (Sanskrit and Urdu were in the original list; English is not in the 8th Schedule).
  • 21st (1967): Sindhi β†’ 15 Β· 71st (1992): Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali β†’ 18 Β· 92nd (2003): Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali β†’ 22.
  • Status of second official language for Sanskrit: Uttarakhand (2010) β€” the first state; then Himachal Pradesh (2019).
🎯 Official PYQs (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. Which languages were added later to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
(B) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
(C) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
(D) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali
Correct answer: (C) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali β€” Sanskrit, Marathi and Oriya were in the original 14; English is not in the 8th Schedule at all.
Q2. Which of the following states has given Sanskrit the status of the second official language of the state? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 18 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
Correct answer: (D) Uttarakhand (2010)
Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for a state to adopt its official language or languages? MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 20 Jan 2026, Shift 1
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346
Correct answer: (C) Article 345
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Which language was NOT added to the 8th Schedule by the 92nd Amendment? Practice MCQ
(A) Bodo
(B) Dogri
(C) Nepali
(D) Santhali
Answer: (C) Nepali β€” by the 71st (1992).
P2. Official language of the Union Hindi and script Devanagari β€” in which Article? Practice MCQ
(A) 343
(B) 345
(C) 348
(D) 351
Answer: (A) 343

πŸ“Œ 21. Important Articles β€” Quick Revision List (6 min read)

Tip: In the 2025 paper, about 17 of the 120 Civics questions were directly on Article numbers. Read this table at least 3 times before the exam.
ArtSubjectArtSubject
1Union of States3New states, changing boundaries/names (Parliament)
5–11Citizenship12Definition of "State"
13Laws inconsistent with FR are void14Equality before law
17Abolition of untouchability196 freedoms
21 / 21ALife and personal liberty / Education (6–14)22Protection against arrest
29–30Interests of minorities32Constitutional remedies (SC writs)
33FR of armed forces restricted39AFree legal aid
40Gram Panchayat44Uniform Civil Code
50Separation of judiciary from executive51AFundamental Duties
52 / 53President / executive power of the Union54 / 61Election of President / impeachment
63 / 64Vice-President / Chairman of the RS72Pardoning power of the President
74CoM (headed by PM) to advise the President75Appointment of ministers, responsibility to the LS
76Attorney General79Constitution of Parliament
80 / 81Rajya Sabha / Lok Sabha85Sessions, prorogation, dissolution (6-month rule)
93Speaker-Deputy Speaker108Joint sitting
110Money Bill112Budget (Annual Financial Statement)
123Ordinance by the President124Establishment of the Supreme Court
131SC original jurisdiction143SC advisory jurisdiction
148CAG153 / 155Governor / appointment
161Pardoning power of the Governor164CM, ministers; responsible to the Vidhan Sabha
165Advocate General168 / 169State legislature / creation-abolition of the Vidhan Parishad
200Governor β€” assent to bills / reserve for the President213Ordinance by the Governor
214 / 226High Court / HC writs231Common HC
243KState Election Commission248Residuary powers (Parliament)
262Inter-state river water disputes263Inter-State Council
275Grants-in-aid280Finance Commission
300ARight to property (legal)312All-India Services
315 / 318UPSC / number of members (President)324Election Commission
326Adult suffrage (18 years)338 / 338A / 338BNCSC / NCST / NCBC
340Backward Classes Commission343 / 345Official language of the Union / official language of a state
352National Emergency356President's Rule
360Financial Emergency368Amendment of the Constitution

πŸ“Œ 22. Basic Civics Concepts (6 min read)

  • 4 elements of the State: population, definite territory, government, sovereignty. Sovereignty is what distinguishes the state from other organisations.
  • Democracy: Abraham Lincoln β€” "government of the people, by the people, for the people". Direct (partly in Switzerland) and representative (India) democracy.
  • Unitary vs Federal: basis = division of powers. Parliamentary vs Presidential: basis = relationship between the executive and the legislature. In a parliamentary system the executive is responsible to the legislature (UK, India); in a presidential system they are separate with a fixed term (USA).
  • Rule of Law: A.V. Dicey β€” law is supreme, no one is above the law. Separation of Powers: Montesquieu.
  • Secularism: the state has no religion, equal respect for all religions.
  • Universal adult franchise: Art 326 β€” 18 years (61st Amendment). NOTA β€” in EVMs since 2013 by SC order (PUCL case).
  • Aadhaar: a 12-digit unique identity number programme that gives identity to Indian residents; UIDAI (statutory by the Aadhaar Act 2016). Aadhaar is not proof of citizenship; it is proof of residence/identity.
  • Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin β€” FD along with FR.
🎯 Official PYQ (MPESB SI Prelims 2025):
Q1. 'Aadhaar' is a programme: MPESB SI Prelims 2025 β€” 16 Jan 2026, Shift 2
(A) to help senior citizens
(B) to provide nutritional support to adolescent women
(C) to train people for social defence
(D) to provide identity to Indian residents
Correct answer: (D) to provide identity to Indian residents
✍️ Practice MCQs:
P1. Who gave the principle of "separation of powers"? Practice MCQ
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Montesquieu
(C) Rousseau
(D) Locke
Answer: (B)
P2. Which element of the State distinguishes it from other organisations? Practice MCQ
(A) Population
(B) Territory
(C) Government
(D) Sovereignty
Answer: (D)
P3. In which Article is adult suffrage provided? Practice MCQ
(A) 324
(B) 326
(C) 330
(D) 343
Answer: (B) 326

PYQ source: official MPESB SI Prelims 2025 paper (16–21 Jan 2026, 12 shifts)